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\(y_1=e^{\tan^{-1}x}\cdot\frac1{1+x^2}=\frac y{1+x^2}\Rightarrow(1+x^2)y_1=y\).

Differentiate again: \((1+x^2)y_2+2xy_1=y_1\Rightarrow(1+x^2)y_2+(2x-1)y_1=0\).

Leibnitz's theorem (differentiate n times):

\(D^n[(1+x^2)y_2]=(1+x^2)y_{n+2}+n(2x)y_{n+1}+\frac{n(n-1)}{2}(2)y_n\)

\(D^n[(2x-1)y_1]=(2x-1)y_{n+1}+n(2)y_n\)

Adding: \((1+x^2)y_{n+2}+(2nx+2x-1)y_{n+1}+(n^2-n+2n)y_n=0\)

\((1+x^2)y_{n+2}+[2(n+1)x-1]y_{n+1}+n(n+1)y_n=0\) (proved).

Doubtly AI · 25 Oct 2026 AI-verified · Oct 2026 Report
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