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Answer: C. \((\sim p \wedge \sim q) \to (\sim p \vee \sim q)\)

Answer: (c) \((\sim p \wedge \sim q) \to (\sim p \vee \sim q)\)

The inverse of \(A \to B\) is \(\sim A \to \sim B\). Here it is \(\sim (p \vee q) \to \sim (p \wedge q)\). By De Morgan's laws \(\sim (p \vee q) \equiv \sim p \wedge \sim q\) and \(\sim (p \wedge q) \equiv \sim p \vee \sim q\), so the inverse is \((\sim p \wedge \sim q) \to (\sim p \vee \sim q)\).

Doubtly AI · 28 Oct 2026 AI-verified · Oct 2026 Report
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