The Boolean expression \(∼(p⇒(∼q))\) is equivalent to :

(a) p ^ q

(b)\( q⇒∼ p\)

(c) p v q

(d) \((∼p)⇒q\)

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Please answer the question in detail

Correct option is A) p^q

Explaination:: \(∼(p⇒(∼q))\)

as \({p⇒q \ is \ same \ as \ ∼p v q}\)

we get \(∼((∼p) v(∼q)) = \) p^q

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