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Maharashtra HSC Biology Board Paper June 2026 with Solutions

Written board papers. Physics and Chemistry: 70 marks, 3 hours. Mathematics & Statistics: 80 marks, 3 hours.

2026, June 180 minutes 70 marks Save WhatsApp

Sections

Section A : Q.1 Multiple choice questions (10 marks) 10 questions
Section A : Q.2 Very short answer questions (8 marks) 8 questions
Section B : Attempt any eight, Q.3 to Q.14 (16 marks) 12 questions
Section C : Attempt any eight, Q.15 to Q.26 (24 marks) 12 questions
Section D : Attempt any three, Q.27 to Q.31 (12 marks) 5 questions

About this paper

This is the Maharashtra State Board (MSBSHSE) HSC (Class 12) Science Biology (56) board paper of the June 2026 (supplementary) examination, held on 27 June 2026 from 11.00 a.m. to 2.00 p.m. The paper code printed on the question paper is J-297. The questions are transcribed in full from the board’s own printed question paper published on its website; the diagrams given in the paper are described in words. The answers are original answers written by Doubtly, not the board’s official model answers.

Paper pattern

Maximum marks 70, time 3 hours, four sections. Section A: Q.1 has ten MCQs (1 mark each, only the first attempt is evaluated) and Q.2 has eight very short answer questions (1 mark each), 18 marks in all, compulsory. Section B: Q.3 to Q.14, twelve 2-mark short answer questions, attempt any eight (16 marks). Section C: Q.15 to Q.26, twelve 3-mark short answer questions, attempt any eight (24 marks). Section D: Q.27 to Q.31, five 4-mark long answer questions, attempt any three (12 marks). The answer to each section is begun on a new page.

How to use it

Attempt the paper in one 3-hour sitting, choosing questions as the board allows. Then compare your answers with the model answers: check the key terms, the labelled diagrams and the number of points written for the marks of each question.

Chapters covered

Instructions

Solve on paper with a timer, then check against the solutions. Sections: A (MCQ and very short answers), B (short answers, attempt any 8 of 12), C (attempt any 8 of 12), D (long answers with choice).

Section A : Q.1 Multiple choice questions (10 marks)

  1. Q.1 (i) The microorganism used for production of beverages like wine, whisky, etc. is _____.

    1. (A) Streptomyces venezuelae
    2. (B) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
    3. (C) Aspergillus niger
    4. (D) Streptomyces griseus
    1 mark See answer →

  2. Q.1 (ii) Which of the following is NOT a Day Neutral Plant (DNP)?

    1. (A) Cucumber
    2. (B) Tomato
    3. (C) Cotton
    4. (D) Tobacco
    1 mark See answer →

  3. Q.1 (iii) When food is translocated from phloem to pith, it is called _____ translocation.

    1. (A) radial
    2. (B) tangential
    3. (C) upward
    4. (D) downward
    1 mark See answer →

  4. Q.1 (iv) Extinction of a host fish leads to extinction of unique parasites of it. This is an example of ________ .

    1. (A) Over exploitation
    2. (B) Invasion of alien species
    3. (C) Co-extinction
    4. (D) Habitat loss
    1 mark See answer →

  5. Q.1 (v) Flavr savr tomato is genetically modified variety for improving _____.

    1. (A) shelf life
    2. (B) disease resistance
    3. (C) iron content
    4. (D) yield
    1 mark See answer →

  6. Q.1 (vi) A petridish containing nutrient medium shows tremendous increase in number of bacteria in short time. It is _____ growth.

    1. (A) slow
    2. (B) exponential
    3. (C) logistic
    4. (D) linear
    1 mark See answer →

  7. Q.1 (vii) Weight loss, increased BMR and protruding eyeballs are the characteristics of _______.

    1. (A) Cretinism
    2. (B) Exopthalmic goitre
    3. (C) Myxodema
    4. (D) Simple goitre
    1 mark See answer →

  8. Q.1 (viii) Charas and ganja are different products obtained from ______.

    1. (A) Papaver somniferum
    2. (B) Erythroxylum coca
    3. (C) Atropa belladonna
    4. (D) Cannabis sativa
    1 mark See answer →

  9. Q.1 (ix) Select the analogous organs.

    1. (A) Forelimbs of lizards and birds.
    2. (B) Sweet potato and potato.
    3. (C) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of cucurbita.
    4. (D) Vermiform appendix and the caecum.
    1 mark See answer →

  10. Q.1 (x) Which one of the following is an example of primary succession?

    1. (A) Abandoned agricultural fields grow wild plants.
    2. (B) New grasses grown on savanna after a wildfire.
    3. (C) Newly formed volcanic island is colonised by Lichens.
    4. (D) Miyawaki plantation on hill slopes.
    1 mark See answer →

Section A : Q.2 Very short answer questions (8 marks)

  1. Q.2 (i) How many meiotic divisions are required to produce 80 male gametes in Angiosperms?

    1 mark See answer →

  2. Q.2 (ii) Which biological tool in rDNA technology is also called molecular scissors?

    1 mark See answer →

  3. Q.2 (iii) When turgor pressure is equal to wall pressure of a turgid cell, then what would be the diffusion pressure deficit?

    1 mark See answer →

  4. Q.2 (iv) What are Long Day Plants (LDP)?

    1 mark See answer →

  5. Q.2 (v) Which part of human brain is responsible for maintaining body balance?

    1 mark See answer →

  6. Q.2 (vi) What is the approximate volume of blood pumped out during one cardiac cycle in adult human?

    1 mark See answer →

  7. Q.2 (vii) Name the milk secreted by mammary gland soon after parturition.

    1 mark See answer →

  8. Q.2 (viii) Name the causative agent of typhoid.

    1 mark See answer →

Section B : Attempt any eight, Q.3 to Q.14 (16 marks)

  1. Q.3 Give the properties of water.

    2 marks See answer →

  2. Q.4 Mention the characteristics of plasmids which make it a good vector.

    2 marks See answer →

  3. Q.5 Sketch and label the structure of antibody.

    2 marks See answer →

  4. Q.6 Match the crop and its hybrid variety and rewrite the following :

    Column I (Crop)Column II (Hybrid Variety)
    (i) Rice(1) Ganga-3
    (ii) Maize(2) Niphad
    (iii) Jowar(3) Ratna
    (iv) Bajra(4) CO-12
    2 marks See answer →

  5. Q.7 Identify the labels-A, B, C and D in the given diagram. [Figure: a human sperm with an oval head, a short neck, a coiled middle piece and a long tail. Label A points to the cap at the tip of the head, B to the large central part of the head, C to the small dark body just below the head, and D to the coiled region behind it.]

    2 marks See answer →

  6. Q.8 Considering Griffith experiment, answer the following.

    (a) Name the bacterium used.

    (b) Write conclusion of the experiment.

    2 marks See answer →

  7. Q.9 Write a note on Angina-Pectoris.

    2 marks See answer →

  8. Q.10 Explain the term plasticity.

    2 marks See answer →

  9. Q.11 Sketch and label the Graafian follicle showing theca externa, antrum and corona radiata.

    2 marks See answer →

  10. Q.12 Give the skeletal features of Homo erectus.

    2 marks See answer →

  11. Q.13 Enlist the names of VI, VII, VIII and IX cranial nerves.

    2 marks See answer →

  12. Q.14 With the help of graphical representation explain sex determination in honey-bees.

    2 marks See answer →

Section C : Attempt any eight, Q.15 to Q.26 (24 marks)

  1. Q.15 Write any three characters each of Archaeopteryx showing Reptilian and Avian features.

    3 marks See answer →

  2. Q.16 Give an account of cutting and grafting as vegetative reproduction methods.

    3 marks See answer →

  3. Q.17 Explain leaching, humification and mineralization as the steps of decomposition process.

    3 marks See answer →

  4. Q.18 Describe commensalism giving two examples.

    3 marks See answer →

  5. Q.19 With the help of a labelled diagram, describe the structure of root-hair.

    3 marks See answer →

  6. Q.20 (a) Write a note on meninges of central nervous system in human being.

    (b) Give functions of cerebrospinal fluid.

    3 marks See answer →

  7. Q.21 (a) Enlist any four mineral deficiency symptoms seen in plants.

    (b) Give the function of molybdenum as mineral nutrient.

    3 marks See answer →

  8. Q.22 Match the following from Column-A and Column-B. Write the correct pairs.

    Column AColumn B
    (i) Anaemia(1) Platelet derived growth factor
    (ii) Atherosclerosis(2) Relaxin
    (iii) Parturition(3) Insulin
    (iv) Blood clots(4) Erythropoietin
    (v) Cancer(5) Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA)
    (vi) Diabetes(6) Interferons, tumour necrosis factor interleukins
    3 marks See answer →

  9. Q.23 Write a note on in situ conservation of biodiversity.

    3 marks See answer →

  10. Q.24 Explain the phase of menstrual cycle which occurs after ovulation.

    3 marks See answer →

  11. Q.25 Differentiate between inspiration and expiration during breathing process.

    3 marks See answer →

  12. Q.26 (a) Give the composition of biogas.

    (b) Enlist the benefits of biogas.

    3 marks See answer →

Section D : Attempt any three, Q.27 to Q.31 (12 marks)

  1. Q.27 Give location and function of any four valves present in human heart.

    4 marks See answer →

  2. Q.28 Identify A, B, C and D parts in the given diagram of an Angiospermic ovule and give the fate of each part after fertilization: [Figure: L.S. of an anatropous ovule with two integuments around the nucellus and embryo sac; the micropyle faces downward beside the funicle. A points to the inner layer at the micropylar end, B to the outer layer, C to the cells at the micropylar end of the embryo sac (egg apparatus), and D to the nucleus in the centre of the embryo sac.]

    4 marks See answer →

  3. Q.29 Give an account of different functional areas of cerebrum.

    4 marks See answer →

  4. Q.30 (a) Write a note on Holandric genes.

    (b) Complete the following table:

    AB
    (i) Monosomy(1) ______
    (ii) ______(2) 2n–2
    (iii) Trisomy(3) ______
    (iv) ______(4) 2n+2
    4 marks See answer →

  5. Q.31 (a) What is DNA profiling?

    (b) Arrange the following steps of DNA profiling in correct sequence:

    (i) Selection of DNA probe; (ii) Isolation of DNA
    (iii) Gel electrophoresis; (iv) Hybridization
    (v) Southern blotting; (vi) Restriction digestion

    4 marks See answer →