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Maharashtra HSC Chemistry Board Paper March 2024 with Solutions

Written board papers. Physics and Chemistry: 70 marks, 3 hours. Mathematics & Statistics: 80 marks, 3 hours.

2024, March 180 minutes 70 marks Save WhatsApp

Sections

Section A : Q.1 Multiple choice questions (10 marks) 10 questions
Section A : Q.2 Very short answer questions (8 marks) 8 questions
Section B : Attempt any eight, Q.3 to Q.14 (16 marks) 12 questions
Section C : Attempt any eight, Q.15 to Q.26 (24 marks) 12 questions
Section D : Attempt any three, Q.27 to Q.31 (12 marks) 5 questions

About this paper

This is the Maharashtra State Board (MSBSHSE) HSC (Class 12) Science Chemistry (55) board paper of the February–March 2024 examination (Day 08). The paper code printed on the question paper is J-852. The duration is 3 hours and the paper carries 70 marks. The questions are transcribed from the board’s own printed question paper published on its website; structures and diagrams are described in words. The answers are original answers written by Doubtly, not the board’s official model answers.

Paper pattern

Four sections. Section A: Q.1 has ten MCQs (1 mark each) and Q.2 has eight very short answer questions (1 mark each), 18 marks, all compulsory. Section B: Q.3 to Q.14, twelve 2-mark questions, attempt any eight (16 marks). Section C: Q.15 to Q.26, twelve 3-mark questions, attempt any eight (24 marks). Section D: Q.27 to Q.31, five 4-mark questions, attempt any three (12 marks). Log tables are allowed, calculators are not. Data given on the paper: R = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1, NA = 6.022 × 1023, F = 96500 C.

How to use it

Attempt the paper in one 3-hour sitting, choosing questions the way the board allows, then compare your answers with the model answers: check the formula, substitution and units in each numerical, and the reagents and conditions in each organic reaction.

Chapters covered

Instructions

Solve on paper with a timer, then check against the solutions. Sections: A (MCQ and very short answers), B (short answers, attempt any 8 of 12), C (attempt any 8 of 12), D (long answers with choice).

Section A : Q.1 Multiple choice questions (10 marks)

  1. Q.1 (i) The spin only magnetic moment of Cr3+ cation is _____.

    1. (A) 3.742 BM
    2. (B) 3.755 BM
    3. (C) 3.873 BM
    4. (D) 3.633 BM
    1 mark See answer →

  2. Q.1 (ii) The linkage present in Lactose is _____.

    1. (A) α, β –1, 2 – glycosidic linkage
    2. (B) α –1, 4 – glycosidic linkage
    3. (C) β –1, 4 – glycosidic linkage
    4. (D) α –1, 4 – glycosidic linkage
    1 mark See answer →

  3. Q.1 (iii) The product of the following reaction is
    C2H5–CO–CH3 —(H2/Ni, Δ)→ ?
    [The reactant is drawn as C2H5–C(=O)–CH3, i.e. butan-2-one.]

    1. (A) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH
    2. (B) CH3–CH(OH)–CH2–CH3 [OH on the second carbon]
    3. (C) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3
    4. (D) CH3–CH2–CH2–COOH
    1 mark See answer →

  4. Q.1 (iv) The pH of 0.001M HCl solution is _____.

    1. (A) 10
    2. (B) 3
    3. (C) 2
    4. (D) 11
    1 mark See answer →

  5. Q.1 (v) The correct structure of complex having IUPAC name sodium hexanitrocobaltate (III) is

    1. (A) Na3[Co(NO2)5]
    2. (B) Na4[Co(NO2)6]
    3. (C) Na3[Co(NO2)6]
    4. (D) Na4[Co(NO2)5]
    1 mark See answer →

  6. Q.1 (vi) The number of particles present in Face Centred Cubic Unit Cell is/are _____.

    1. (A) 1
    2. (B) 2
    3. (C) 3
    4. (D) 4
    1 mark See answer →

  7. Q.1 (vii) The monomer used in preparation of teflon is _____.

    1. (A) E caprolactum
    2. (B) vinyl chloride
    3. (C) styrene
    4. (D) tetrafluoroethene
    1 mark See answer →

  8. Q.1 (viii) Among the following vinylic halide is ______.

    1. (A) R–CH(X)–R [X on the middle carbon]
    2. (B) CH2=CH–X
    3. (C) [Structure: benzene ring with X attached directly to a ring carbon]
    4. (D) CH2=CH–CH2–X
    1 mark See answer →

  9. Q.1 (ix) The product of hydrolysis of propyne in the presence of 1% HgSO4 and 40% H2SO4 is _____.

    1. (A) methanal
    2. (B) ethanal
    3. (C) propanal
    4. (D) propanone
    1 mark See answer →

  10. Q.1 (x) If unit of rate constant is mol dm–3 s–1, the order of reaction would be _____.

    1. (A) zero
    2. (B) 1
    3. (C) 2
    4. (D) 3
    1 mark See answer →

Section A : Q.2 Very short answer questions (8 marks)

  1. Q.2 (i) Write the name of metal nanoparticle used to remove E.coli bacteria from water.

    1 mark See answer →

  2. Q.2 (ii) Write the name of reduction product formed when ethyl cyanide is treated with sodium and alcohol.

    1 mark See answer →

  3. Q.2 (iii) Complete the reaction: CH3CH2Cl —(AgCN, alc., Δ)→ ?

    1 mark See answer →

  4. Q.2 (iv) Calculate effective atomic number of [Co (NH3)6]3+ ion.

    1 mark See answer →

  5. Q.2 (v) The compounds of Ti4+ ions are colourless due to ......

    1 mark See answer →

  6. Q.2 (vi) Write SI unit of molar conductivity.

    1 mark See answer →

  7. Q.2 (vii) Write the sign convention of work done during expansion of gas.

    1 mark See answer →

  8. Q.2 (viii) Write the condition of reverse osmosis.

    1 mark See answer →

Section B : Attempt any eight, Q.3 to Q.14 (16 marks)

  1. Q.3 Derive an expression for maximum work obtainable during isothermal reversible expansion of an ideal gas from initial volume (V1) to final volume (V2).

    2 marks See answer →

  2. Q.4 What are interhalogen compounds? Write the chemical reaction, when chlorine reacts with dry slaked lime.

    2 marks See answer →

  3. Q.5 What is nano material? Write the reaction involved in sol-gel process during hydrolysis.

    2 marks See answer →

  4. Q.6 Write classification of proteins with an example.

    2 marks See answer →

  5. Q.7 Calculate the time required to deposit 2·4 g of Cu, when 2·03 A of current passed through CuSO4 solution.
    (At. mass of Cu = 63.5 g.mol–1)

    2 marks See answer →

  6. Q.8 Why amines are basic in nature? Among dimethylamine (pKb = 3·27) and diethylamine (pKb = 3·0), which one is more basic?

    2 marks See answer →

  7. Q.9 Explain buffer action of sodium acetate-acetic acid buffer.

    2 marks See answer →

  8. Q.10 Write preparation of (a) diethyl ether (b) ethyl cyanide from ethyl bromide.

    2 marks See answer →

  9. Q.11 Henry’s constant for CH3Br(g) is 0·159 mol dm–3.bar–1 at 25°C. Calculate its solubility in water at 25°C, if its partial pressure is 0·164 bar.

    2 marks See answer →

  10. Q.12 Write the structure and name of monomer of
    (a) Nylon-6
    (b) Natural rubber

    2 marks See answer →

  11. Q.13 Define Lanthanide contraction. Write the balanced chemical equations when acidified K2Cr2O7 reacts with H2S.

    2 marks See answer →

  12. Q.14 Derive the relationship between molar mass, density of the substance and unit cell edge length.

    2 marks See answer →

Section C : Attempt any eight, Q.15 to Q.26 (24 marks)

  1. Q.15 What is osmotic pressure? How will you determine molar mass of solute from osmotic pressure?

    3 marks See answer →

  2. Q.16 Write chemical reactions involved in :
    (a) Rosenmund reduction.
    (b) Gatterman Koch formylation.
    (c) Cannizzaro reaction of methanal.

    3 marks See answer →

  3. Q.17 Calculate the standard enthalpy of combustion of methane, if the standard enthalpy of formation of methane, carbon dioxide and water are –74·8, –393·5 and –285·8 kJmol–1 respectively.

    3 marks See answer →

  4. Q.18 What is the action of following on ethyl bromide ?
    (a) silver nitrite
    (b) Mg in dry ether
    (c) alcoholic sodium hydroxide

    3 marks See answer →

  5. Q.19 For the reaction A + B → P.
    If [B] is doubled at constant [A], the rate of reaction doubled. If [A] is triple and [B] is doubled, the rate of reaction increases by a factor of 6. Calculate the rate law equation.

    3 marks See answer →

  6. Q.20 Arrange the following in the increasing order of the property mentioned:
    (i) HOCl, HClO2, HClO3, HClO4 (acidic strength)
    (ii) MF, MCl, MBr, MI (ionic character)
    (iii) HF, HCl, HBr, HI (thermal stability)

    3 marks See answer →

  7. Q.21 Explain Wolf-Kishner reduction reaction. Write preparation of propanone by using ethanoyl chloride and dimethyl cadmium.

    3 marks See answer →

  8. Q.22 Write postulates of Werner theory of co-ordination complexes. Write the name of a hexadentate ligand.

    3 marks See answer →

  9. Q.23 Define electrochemical series and write its two applications.

    3 marks See answer →

  10. Q.24 Identify ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ in following chain reaction and rewrite the chemical reactions:
    CH3CH2OH —(red ‘P’ / Br2)→ A —(KCN, alc)→ B —(LiAlH4, Ether)→ C

    3 marks See answer →

  11. Q.25 Define acids and bases according to Bronsted-Lowry theory. Derive relationship between pH and pOH.

    3 marks See answer →

  12. Q.26 Write the preparation of potassium dichromate from chromite ore.

    3 marks See answer →

Section D : Attempt any three, Q.27 to Q.31 (12 marks)

  1. Q.27 Convert the following :
    (i) acetaldehyde to isopropyl alcohol.
    (ii) cumene to phenol.
    (iii) anisole to phenol.
    Write two uses of neon.

    4 marks See answer →

  2. Q.28 Define : (i) Extensive and Intensive properties
    (ii) Isobaric and Adiabatic processes
    What are enzymes?
    Write the atomic numbers of transuranium elements.

    4 marks See answer →

  3. Q.29 Predict the type of cubic lattice of a solid element having edge length of 400 pm and density is 6·25 g/ml
    (Atomic mass of element = 60)
    Define : Nanoscience
    Write chemical reaction for the preparation of polyacrylonitrile.

    4 marks See answer →

  4. Q.30 Derive the relation between half life period and rate constant for first order reaction.
    Write the net cell reaction during discharging of lead accumulator.
    Draw the structure of peroxymonosulphuric acid.

    4 marks See answer →

  5. Q.31 Mention the number of unpaired electrons and geometry of following complexes :
    (i) [Ni (Cl)4]2–
    (ii) [Ni (CN)4]2–
    Convert the following :
    (a) Ethanenitrile into ethanal.
    (b) Cyclohexane into adipic acid.

    4 marks See answer →