Skip to content
doubtly

Maharashtra HSC Chemistry Board Paper June 2026 with Solutions

Written board papers. Physics and Chemistry: 70 marks, 3 hours. Mathematics & Statistics: 80 marks, 3 hours.

2026, June 180 minutes 70 marks Save WhatsApp

Sections

Section A : Q.1 Multiple choice questions (10 marks) 10 questions
Section A : Q.2 Very short answer questions (8 marks) 8 questions
Section B : Attempt any eight, Q.3 to Q.14 (16 marks) 12 questions
Section C : Attempt any eight, Q.15 to Q.26 (24 marks) 12 questions
Section D : Attempt any three, Q.27 to Q.31 (12 marks) 5 questions

About this paper

This is the Maharashtra State Board (MSBSHSE) HSC (Class 12) Science Chemistry (55) board paper of the June 2026 (supplementary) examination, held on 22 June 2026. The paper code printed on the question paper is J-261. The questions are transcribed in full from the board’s own printed question paper published on its website; structures and figures are described in words. The answers are original answers written by Doubtly, not the board’s official model answers.

Paper pattern

Maximum marks 70, time 3 hours, four sections. Section A: Q.1 has ten MCQs (1 mark each) and Q.2 has eight very short answer questions (1 mark each), 18 marks, all compulsory. Section B: Q.3 to Q.14, twelve 2-mark questions, attempt any eight (16 marks). Section C: Q.15 to Q.26, twelve 3-mark questions, attempt any eight (24 marks). Section D: Q.27 to Q.31, five 4-mark questions, attempt any three (12 marks). Log tables are allowed, calculators are not. Constants printed on the paper: \(N_A = 6.022\times10^{23}\), \(R = 0.08206\) L atm K–1 mol–1 = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1, 1 F = 96500 C.

How to use it

Attempt the paper in one 3-hour sitting, choosing questions the way the board allows. Then compare with the answers: for numericals check the formula, substitution and units; for organic questions check every reagent and condition written over the arrow.

Chapters covered

Instructions

Solve on paper with a timer, then check against the solutions. Sections: A (MCQ and very short answers), B (short answers, attempt any 8 of 12), C (attempt any 8 of 12), D (long answers with choice).

Section A : Q.1 Multiple choice questions (10 marks)

  1. Q.1 (i) Which of the following is NOT an elastomer?

    1. (A) vulcanized rubber
    2. (B) buna-S
    3. (C) neoprene
    4. (D) polyethene
  2. Q.1 (ii) Anisole reacts with HI at 398K to form –

    1. (A) cyclohexanol
    2. (B) benzenol
    3. (C) iodobenzene
    4. (D) benzene
  3. Q.1 (iii) Unit of Henry’s constant is _____.

    1. (A) mol L–1 bar–1
    2. (B) mol L bar
    3. (C) mol L–1 bar
    4. (D) mol–1 L–1 bar–1
  4. Q.1 (iv) The shape of bromine penta-fluoride is _____.

    1. (A) Linear
    2. (B) Bent - T - Shape
    3. (C) Tetrahedral
    4. (D) Square pyramidal
  5. Q.1 (v) The relation between edge length and radius for body centered cubic structure is –

    1. (A) \(r = \dfrac{a}{2}\)
    2. (B) \(r = \sqrt{3}\,\dfrac{a}{4}\)
    3. (C) \(r = \sqrt{2}\,\dfrac{a}{4}\)
    4. (D) \(r = \sqrt{3}\,\dfrac{a}{2}\)
  6. Q.1 (vi) Atomic number of post actinoid element range from–

    1. (A) 58 – 72
    2. (B) 78 – 92
    3. (C) 93 – 103
    4. (D) 104 – 118
  7. Q.1 (vii) The pH of buffer solution containing 0.05 mol NaF per litre and 0.01 mol HF per litre (pKa = 3.1427) is ____.

    1. (A) 3.8417
    2. (B) 3.1427
    3. (C) 0.3841
    4. (D) 0.0384
  8. Q.1 (viii) Preparation of ethanamine from acetonitrile represents –

    1. (A) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
    2. (B) Mendius reduction
    3. (C) Hofmann hypobromite degradation
    4. (D) Sandmeyer reaction
  9. Q.1 (ix) The source of dichlorocarbene is _____.

    1. (A) methyl chloride
    2. (B) methylene chloride
    3. (C) chloroform
    4. (D) carbon tetrachloride
  10. Q.1 (x) The reagent used to convert acetyl chloride to acetaldehyde is –

    1. (A) SnCl2 + HCl
    2. (B) Zn·Hg + Conc.HCl
    3. (C) NH2NH2, KOH / ethylene glycol (CH2OH–CH2OH)
    4. (D) H2/Pd–BaSO4

Section A : Q.2 Very short answer questions (8 marks)

  1. Q.2 (i) Write the relation between conductivity and molar conductivity.

  2. Q.2 (ii) Write the oxidation state of Nickel in [Ni(Cl)4]2– complex ion.

  3. Q.2 (iii) Write the name of nanostructured material used in tyres of car to increase their life.

  4. Q.2 (iv) Write the glycosidic linkage present in maltose.

  5. Q.2 (v) Draw the structure of perchloric acid.

  6. Q.2 (vi) Write the trade name of most common thermoplastic polyester.

  7. Q.2 (vii) Calculate change over temperature for a certain reaction, whose ΔH° is – 60 kJ and ΔS° is –150 JK–1.

  8. Q.2 (viii) Write the unit of rate constant of zero order reaction.

Section B : Attempt any eight, Q.3 to Q.14 (16 marks)

  1. Q.3 Write reactions involved during preparation of Nylon 6, 6 fibre.

    2 marks See answer →
  2. Q.4 Derive Ostwald’s dilution law equation for a weak acid.

    2 marks See answer →
  3. Q.5 Draw the structures of two forms of alanine having pH 2 and pH 10.

    2 marks See answer →
  4. Q.6

    Define the following terms :

    (a) Intensive property

    (b) Standard enthalpy of combustion

    2 marks See answer →
  5. Q.7

    What is the action of following reagents on ethyl amine? (Indicate by reaction)

    (a) Nitrous acid

    (b) Chloroform and KOH

    2 marks See answer →
  6. Q.8

    (a) State Kohlrausch law of independent migration of ions.

    (b) Write Nernst equation to calculate electrode potential.

    2 marks See answer →
  7. Q.9

    (a) Write general electronic configuration of 3d series elements.

    (b) Write any two points which explain about the colour of a transition metal ion.

    2 marks See answer →
  8. Q.10 Explain aldol condensation reaction with respect to ethanal.

    2 marks See answer →
  9. Q.11 Write a note on Kolbe reaction.

    2 marks See answer →
  10. Q.12

    (a) Write the relation between standard cell potential and equilibrium constant.

    (b) Write the representation of sodium hexacyanoferrate (III) complex.

    2 marks See answer →
  11. Q.13 In first order reaction 60% of reactant decomposes in 40 min. Calculate the rate constant of the reaction.

    2 marks See answer →
  12. Q.14 Explain optical activity of 2-chlorobutane.

    2 marks See answer →

Section C : Attempt any eight, Q.15 to Q.26 (24 marks)

  1. Q.15

    (a) Derive a relationship between molar mass, density of the substance and unit cell edge length.

    (b) Define - paramagnetic solids.

    3 marks See answer →
  2. Q.16

    (a) Mention the names of four principles of green chemistry.

    (b) Write advantages of nanoparticles and nanotechnology in the field of energy sector.

    3 marks See answer →
  3. Q.17

    (a) State second law of thermodynamics.

    (b) Define - Nucleotides.

    (c) Write chemical reaction for conversion of benzene diazonium chloride into benzene.

    3 marks See answer →
  4. Q.18 The solubility product of AgBr is 5.2×10–13. Calculate its solubility in mol dm–3 and g dm–3. (Molar mass of AgBr = 187.8 g mol–1)

    3 marks See answer →
  5. Q.19

    Convert the following :

    (a) Ethanol to ethoxyethane.

    (b) Phenol to p-benzoquinone

    (c) Salicylic acid to aspirin

    3 marks See answer →
  6. Q.20

    (a) State Raoult’s law.

    (b) Derive the relationship to determine molar mass of non volatile solute by depression of freezing point.

    3 marks See answer →
  7. Q.21

    (a) Explain the formation of [CoF6]3– complex ion with respect to

    (i) Oxidation State of Cobalt

    (ii) Type of hybridisation

    (iii) Magnetic property

    (iv) Geometrical shape

    (b) Write the name of ligand used to estimate hardness of water.

    3 marks See answer →
  8. Q.22

    (a) Write cell reactions of hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell at anode and cathode.

    (b) Write an application of electrochemical series.

    3 marks See answer →
  9. Q.23

    (a) Explain anomalous behaviour of oxygen with respect to

    (i) Atomicity

    (ii) Magnetic property

    (iii) Oxidation state

    (iv) Nature of hydride

    (b) Write any two uses of helium.

    3 marks See answer →
  10. Q.24 What is the energy of activation of a reaction whose rate constant doubles when the temperature changes from 303 K to 313 K?

    3 marks See answer →
  11. Q.25

    (a) Write chemical reactions taking place during extraction of iron in zone of reduction of the blast furnace.

    (b) Write observed electronic configuration of gadolinium. (Z=64)

    3 marks See answer →
  12. Q.26

    Convert the following :

    (a) Acetic acid to ethyl alcohol

    (b) Acetic acid to acetic anhydride

    (c) Acetyl chloride to acetamide

    3 marks See answer →

Section D : Attempt any three, Q.27 to Q.31 (12 marks)

  1. Q.27

    (a) Define : (i) Co-ordination numbers

    (ii) Ambidentate ligand

    (b) Write a note on Clemmensen reduction of propanone.

    4 marks See answer →
  2. Q.28

    (a) Derive relationship between ΔH and ΔU for a gaseous chemical reaction.

    (b) Give reason – Ozone is a good bleaching agent.

    (c) Write any two uses of SO2.

    4 marks See answer →
  3. Q.29

    (a) Define - Polymorphism.

    (b) State and explain Hess’s law of constant summation. Write its one application.

    4 marks See answer →
  4. Q.30

    (a) 0.01 m aqueous formic acid solution freezes at – 0.021°C. Calculate its degree of dissociation. (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1)

    (b) Write properties of interstitial compounds.

    4 marks See answer →
  5. Q.31

    (a) What is the action of following reagents on Bromoethane?

    (i) KNO2

    (ii) ‘Mg’ metal

    (iii) Silver acetate

    (b) Draw structure - DDT insecticide.

    4 marks See answer →