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Maharashtra HSC Biology Board Paper July 2025 with Solutions

Written board papers. Physics and Chemistry: 70 marks, 3 hours. Mathematics & Statistics: 80 marks, 3 hours.

2025, July 180 minutes 70 marks Save WhatsApp

Sections

Section A : Q.1 Multiple choice questions (10 marks) 10 Q
Section A : Q.2 Very short answer questions (8 marks) 8 Q
Section B : Attempt any eight, Q.3 to Q.14 (16 marks) 12 Q
Section C : Attempt any eight, Q.15 to Q.26 (24 marks) 12 Q
Section D : Attempt any three, Q.27 to Q.31 (12 marks) 5 Q

About this paper

This is the Maharashtra State Board (MSBSHSE) HSC (Class 12) Science Biology (56) board paper of the July 2025 (supplementary) examination. The paper code printed on the question paper is J-410. The questions are transcribed in full from the board’s own printed question paper published on its website; the graph and diagram given in the paper are described in words. The answers are original answers written by Doubtly, not the board’s official model answers.

Paper pattern

Maximum marks 70, time 3 hours, four sections. Section A: Q.1 has ten MCQs (1 mark each, only the first attempt is evaluated) and Q.2 has eight very short answer questions (1 mark each), 18 marks in all, compulsory. Section B: Q.3 to Q.14, twelve 2-mark short answer questions, attempt any eight (16 marks). Section C: Q.15 to Q.26, twelve 3-mark short answer questions, attempt any eight (24 marks). Section D: Q.27 to Q.31, five 4-mark long answer questions, attempt any three (12 marks). The answer to each section is begun on a new page.

How to use it

Attempt the paper in one 3-hour sitting, choosing questions as the board allows. Then compare your answers with the model answers: check the key terms, the labelled diagrams and the number of points written for the marks of each question.

Chapters covered

Instructions

Solve on paper with a timer, then check against the solutions. Sections: A (MCQ and very short answers), B (short answers, attempt any 8 of 12), C (attempt any 8 of 12), D (long answers with choice).

Section A : Q.1 Multiple choice questions (10 marks)

  1. Q.1 (i) The number of base pairs present around a histone octamer of nucleosome is _____.

    1. (A) 200
    2. (B) 146
    3. (C) 54
    4. (D) 20
    1 mark See answer →

  2. Q.1 (ii) Which of the following is NOT a sensory nerve?

    1. (A) I
    2. (B) II
    3. (C) III
    4. (D) VIII
    1 mark See answer →

  3. Q.1 (iii) Which of the following biofertilizers is used by farmers to increase the yield of rice crop?

    1. (A) Azotobacter
    2. (B) Azospirillum
    3. (C) Bacillus
    4. (D) Azolla
    1 mark See answer →

  4. Q.1 (iv) Connecting link between amphibians and reptiles is _____.

    1. (A) Archaeopteryx
    2. (B) Australopithecus
    3. (C) Seymouria
    4. (D) Ichthyosaurus
    1 mark See answer →

  5. Q.1 (v) The type of gene interaction deviating from Mendel’s findings of 3 : 1 to 1 : 2 is _____.

    1. (A) Incomplete dominance
    2. (B) Codominance
    3. (C) Multiple alleles
    4. (D) Pleiotropy
    1 mark See answer →

  6. Q.1 (vi) Identify initiation codon of mRNA from the following.

    1. (A) UAA
    2. (B) AUG
    3. (C) UAG
    4. (D) UGA
    1 mark See answer →

  7. Q.1 (vii) Identify the type of association between orchid growing as an epiphyte on branch of mango tree.

    1. (A) Parasitism
    2. (B) Amensalism
    3. (C) Commensalism
    4. (D) Mutualism
    1 mark See answer →

  8. Q.1 (viii) Which of the following substances protects pollen grains from chemicals?

    1. (A) Pectin
    2. (B) Hemicellulose
    3. (C) Cellulose
    4. (D) Sporopollenin
    1 mark See answer →

  9. Q.1 (ix) The part of antibody which binds with the specific antigen to form antigen-antibody complex is _____.

    1. (A) Paratopes
    2. (B) Isotopes
    3. (C) Epitopes
    4. (D) Octamer
    1 mark See answer →

  10. Q.1 (x) Which genes are used for improvement of oil content and oil quality in plants?

    1. (A) Phytase gene
    2. (B) Arabidopsis gene
    3. (C) Holandric gene
    4. (D) Oncogene
    1 mark See answer →

Section A : Q.2 Very short answer questions (8 marks)

  1. Q.2 (i) Give term for “The total genetic information encoded in sum total of genes in a Mendelian population.”

    1 mark See answer →

  2. Q.2 (ii) Name the process in which swelling of hydrophilic colloids occur due to adsorption of water.

    1 mark See answer →

  3. Q.2 (iii) Give the term for the condition in which the number of WBCs in blood decreases below normal.

    1 mark See answer →

  4. Q.2 (iv) What is the term, when nucleotides on DNA strands shows the following sequence of base pairs.
    3’ ……… CTT AAG ……… 5’
    5’ ……… GAA TTC ……… 3’

    1 mark See answer →

  5. Q.2 (v) Identify ‘A’ from the graph given below showing species area relationship :
    [Graph: Species richness on the Y-axis and Area on the X-axis. A curve rises steeply and then levels off; ‘A’ points to this curve. A straight line labelled “Log-log scale” is drawn below it, marked log S = log C + Z log A.]

    1 mark See answer →

  6. Q.2 (vi) Name the disorder in which deficiency of ADH leads to reduced water reabsorption and increase in urine output.

    1 mark See answer →

  7. Q.2 (vii) Name the permanent birth control method in which the fallopian tube is tied and cut.

    1 mark See answer →

  8. Q.2 (viii) Name the long term storage places of carbon in the form of rocks and fossil fuels which are away from carbon cycle.

    1 mark See answer →

Section B : Attempt any eight, Q.3 to Q.14 (16 marks)

  1. Q.3 Give any two reasons why breathing through nose is beneficial than through mouth.

    2 marks See answer →

  2. Q.4 Mention any two molecular evidences of evolution.

    2 marks See answer →

  3. Q.5 Enlist any four uses of gene therapy.

    2 marks See answer →

  4. Q.6 Define the terms :
    (a) Explant
    (b) Callus

    2 marks See answer →

  5. Q.7 Identify the disorders showing following symptoms :
    (a) Constriction of bronchioles, mucus build up in bronchioles, periodic wheezing, difficulty in breathing.
    (b) Inflammation of sinuses and mucous discharge.

    2 marks See answer →

  6. Q.8 Define- AGR and RGR regarding plant growth.

    2 marks See answer →

  7. Q.9 Draw a neat diagram of structure of root hair showing vacuole, mitochondria and nucleus.

    2 marks See answer →

  8. Q.10 Enlist the types of chromosomes on the basis of position of centromere.

    2 marks See answer →

  9. Q.11 Mention any four drawbacks of Darwinism.

    2 marks See answer →

  10. Q.12 Write appropriate equations to represent Ammonification.

    2 marks See answer →

  11. Q.13 Give any two functions of Medulla oblongata.

    2 marks See answer →

  12. Q.14 Differentiate between Inspiration and Expiration with respect to position of diaphragm and working of intercostal muscles.

    2 marks See answer →

Section C : Attempt any eight, Q.15 to Q.26 (24 marks)

  1. Q.15 What is adolescence? Mention any four characteristics of 15 to 17 years age group.

    3 marks See answer →

  2. Q.16 Identify A, B and C from the given diagram of Graafian follicle and mention their significance :
    [Figure: a mature Graafian follicle with a large fluid-filled antrum. A points to the outermost layer of the follicle, B to the layer just inside it, and C to the centre of the oocyte lying in a mound of granulosa cells (cumulus) projecting into the antrum.]

    3 marks See answer →

  3. Q.17 (a) Which part of CNS produces CSF?
    (b) Give any four functions of CSF.

    3 marks See answer →

  4. Q.18 Write the name and position of any three valves in human heart.

    3 marks See answer →

  5. Q.19 Describe any three chemical defence mechanisms in plants against herbivores in population interaction.

    3 marks See answer →

  6. Q.20 Mention any six symptoms of disorder caused by trisomy of 21st chromosome.

    3 marks See answer →

  7. Q.21 Describe the development of male gametophyte from microspore. Draw a neat labelled diagram of male gametophyte.

    3 marks See answer →

  8. Q.22 Define decomposition. Explain any four steps of decomposition in correct sequence.

    3 marks See answer →

  9. Q.23 Give deficiency symptoms of following elements in plants :
    (a) Potassium (K+)
    (b) Magnesium (Mg++)
    (c) Boron (BO33–)

    3 marks See answer →

  10. Q.24 Give scientific names of sugarcane varieties native of North and South India. Name the centre in India which has developed sugarcane varieties containing high sugar.

    3 marks See answer →

  11. Q.25 With appropriate terms, complete the following chart and rewrite it :

    Sr. No.Disorder/Diseases Health ConditionRecombinant Protein (s)
    (i)Parturition________
    (ii)Emphysema________
    (iii)________Hepatitis B vaccine
    3 marks See answer →

  12. Q.26 Mention any two major types of air pollutants. Add a note on their ill effects on human health.

    3 marks See answer →

Section D : Attempt any three, Q.27 to Q.31 (12 marks)

  1. Q.27 Define endosperm. Describe types of endosperm.

    4 marks See answer →

  2. Q.28 With the help of a neat labelled diagram, describe the structure of human sperm.

    4 marks See answer →

  3. Q.29 Describe the transcription and processing of hnRNA to mRNA in Eukaryotes.

    4 marks See answer →

  4. Q.30 What is transpiration? Draw well labelled diagram showing structure of stomatal apparatus in dicotyledons? Mention any three advantages of transpiration.

    4 marks See answer →

  5. Q.31 Name any four hormones secreted by adenohypophysis and give their significance.

    4 marks See answer →