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Botany

8 chapters 620 solved questions 22 tests

Every question from past board papers on Botany, newest paper first. Open any question for its full worked answer.

NEET UG 2025 question paper (official, booklet 45)

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  1. The complex II of mitochondrial electron transport chain is also known as

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  2. Which one of the following statements refers to Reductionist Biology?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  3. Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch is an example of which of the following?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  4. From the statements given below choose the correct option :

    A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.

    B. Each ribosome has two sub-units.

    C. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 40S while that of 70S are 50S and 30S.

    D. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 20S and that of 70S are 50S and 20S.

    E. The two sub-units of 80S are 60S and 30S and that of 70S are 50S and 30S.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  5. Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  6. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy.

    Statement II : The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP).

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  7. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

    Assertion (A) : Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce nectar.

    Reason (R) : The flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grains in wind and water pollinated flowers.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  8. Which of the following is an example of non-distilled alcoholic beverage produced by yeast?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  9. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : In a floral formula ⊕ stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower, and G (underlined) stands for inferior ovary.

    Statement II : In a floral formula ⊕ stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower and G (underlined) stands for superior ovary.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  10. Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus is used for

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  11. Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  12. Which one of the following phytohormones promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in the delay of leaf senescence in plants?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  13. Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the correct sequence.

    A. Prothallus stage

    B. Meiosis in spore mother cells

    C. Fertilisation

    D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in gametophyte.

    E. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in presence of water.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  14. Which of following organisms cannot fix nitrogen?

    A. Azotobacter

    B. Oscillatoria

    C. Anabaena

    D. Volvox

    E. Nostoc

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  15. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : Transfer RNAs and ribosomal RNA do not interact with mRNA.

    Statement II : RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  16. Name the class of enzyme that usually catalyze the following reaction :

    S – G + S# → S + S# – G

    Where, G → a group other than hydrogen

    S → a substrate

    S# → another substrate

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  17. Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard to the structure of monocot stem.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  18. The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is

    A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg.

    B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum.

    C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores.

    D. Formation of sporophyte.

    E. Release of antherozoids into water.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  19. Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I: A. Centromere; B. Cilium; C. Cristae; D. Cell membrane

    List - II: I. Mitochondrion; II. Cell division; III. Cell movement; IV. Phospholipid Bilayer

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  20. Match List I with List II :

    List I: A. Chlorophyll a; B. Chlorophyll b; C. Xanthophylls; D. Carotenoids

    List II: I. Yellow-green; II. Yellow; III. Blue-green; IV. Yellow to Yellow-orange

    Choose the option with all correct matches.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  21. In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a protein-rich layer called :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  22. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

    Assertion (A) : A typical unfertilised, angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is 8 nucleate and 7-celled.

    Reason (R) : The egg apparatus has 2 polar nuclei.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  23. A specialised membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication and respiration is :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  24. Which of the following are the post-transcriptional events in an eukaryotic cell?

    A. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to splicing.

    B. Removal of introns and joining of exons.

    C. Addition of methyl group at 5' end of hnRNA.

    D. Addition of adenine residues at 3' end of hnRNA.

    E. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  25. What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait?

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  26. Which one of the following enzymes contains 'Haem' as the prosthetic group?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  27. Each of the following characteristics represent a Kingdom proposed by Whittaker. Arrange the following in increasing order of complexity of body organization.

    A. Multicellular heterotrophs with cell wall made of chitin.

    B. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ system level of body organization.

    C. Prokaryotes with cell wall made of polysaccharides and amino acids.

    D. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level of body organization.

    E. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  28. Who is known as the father of Ecology in India?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  29. Match List I with List II :

    List-I: A. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase; B. Euchromatin; C. Frederick Griffith; D. Heterochromatin

    List-II: I. Streptococcus pneumoniae; II. Densely packed and dark-stained; III. Loosely packed and light-stained; IV. DNA as genetic material confirmation

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  30. Match List I with List II.

    List I: A. Adenosine B. Adenylic acid C. Adenine D. Alanine

    List II: I. Nitrogen base II. Nucleotide III. Nucleoside IV. Amino acid

    Choose the option with all correct matches.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  31. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

    Assertion (A) : The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package the materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell.

    Reason (R) : Vesicles containing materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  32. Match List I with List II :

    List I: A. Scutellum B. Non-albuminous seed C. Epiblast D. Perisperm

    List II: I. Persistent nucellus II. Cotyledon of Monocot seed III. Groundnut IV. Rudimentary cotyledon

    Choose the option with all correct matches.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  33. Genes R and Y follow independent assortment. If RRYY produce round yellow seeds and rryy produce wrinkled green seeds, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  34. Histones are enriched with -

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  35. The protein portion of an enzyme is called :

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  36. Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an Ecosystem?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  37. With the help of given pedigree, find out the probability for the birth of a child having no disease and being a carrier (has the disease mutation in one allele of the gene) in F3 generation.

    Pedigree chart F0-F3 with symbols: unaffected male, affected male, carrier female, unaffected female, affected female; F3 individuals marked with ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  38. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

    Assertion (A) : Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus.

    Reason (R) : Presence of more than one nucleus in the tapetum increases the efficiency of nourishing the developing microspore mother cells.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  39. How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to occur for the development of a mature female gametophyte from the megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm plant?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  40. Which of the following is an example of a zygomorphic flower?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  41. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it has enclosed fig wasps in it.

    Statement II : Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit mutual relationship as fig wasp completes its life cycle in fig fruit and fig fruit gets pollinated by fig wasp.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  42. What is the main function of the spindle fibers during mitosis ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  43. Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperms?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  44. Match List I with List II.

    List I: A. Pteridophyte B. Bryophyte C. Angiosperm D. Gymnosperm

    List II: I. Salvia II. Ginkgo III. Polytrichum IV. Salvinia

    Choose the option with all correct matches.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  45. Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be made up of three nucleotides?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  46. Match List I with List II :

    List I: A. The Evil Quartet B. Ex situ conservation C. Lantana camara D. Dodo

    List II: I. Cryopreservation II. Alien species invasion III. Causes of biodiversity losses IV. Extinction

    Choose the correct matches.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  47. In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of the following?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  48. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : In ecosystem, there is unidirectional flow of energy of sun from producers to consumers.

    Statement II : Ecosystems are exempted from 2nd law of thermodynamics.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  49. Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  50. Read the following statements on plant growth and development.

    A. Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins.

    B. Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well as inhibition of growth.

    C. Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for re-differentiation.

    D. Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter.

    E. Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds.

    Choose the option with all correct statements.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  51. Which factor is important for termination of transcription?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  52. Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the following must be true?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  53. Which of the following microbes is NOT involved in the preparation of household products?

    A. Aspergillus niger

    B. Lactobacillus

    C. Trichoderma polysporum

    D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae

    E. Propionibacterium sharmanii

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  54. Which one of the following equations represents the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of population?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

NEET UG 2024 question paper (official, booklet S6)

Full paper →
  1. The cofactor of the enzyme carboxypeptidase is:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  2. Given below are two statements:

    Statement I : Parenchyma is living but collenchyma is dead tissue.

    Statement II : Gymnosperms lack xylem vessels but presence of xylem vessels is the characteristic of angiosperms.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  3. Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of chromosomes during

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  4. In a plant, black seed color (BB/Bb) is dominant over white seed color (bb). In order to find out the genotype of the black seed plant, with which of the following genotype will you cross it?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  5. The equation of Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth is

    \(\frac{dN}{dt} = rN\left[\frac{K-N}{K}\right]\).

    From this equation, \(K\) indicates:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  6. How many molecules of ATP and NADPH are required for every molecule of \(CO_2\) fixed in the Calvin cycle?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  7. Match List I with List II

    List I: A. Clostridium butylicum; B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae; C. Trichoderma polysporum; D. Streptococcus sp.

    List II: I. Ethanol; II. Streptokinase; III. Butyric acid; IV. Cyclosporin-A

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  8. These are regarded as major causes of biodiversity loss:

    A. Over exploitation

    B. Co-extinction

    C. Mutation

    D. Habitat loss and fragmentation

    E. Migration

    Choose the correct option:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  9. Given below are two statements:

    Statement I : Chromosomes become gradually visible under light microscope during leptotene stage.

    Statement II : The begining of diplotene stage is recognized by dissolution of synaptonemal complex.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  10. Auxin is used by gardeners to prepare weed-free lawns. But no damage is caused to grass as auxin

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  11. A pink flowered Snapdragon plant was crossed with a red flowered Snapdragon plant. What type of phenotype/s is/are expected in the progeny?

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  12. Which of the following are required for the dark reaction of photosynthesis?

    A. Light

    B. Chlorophyll

    C. \(CO_2\)

    D. ATP

    E. NADPH

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  13. The lactose present in the growth medium of bacteria is transported to the cell by the action of:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  14. Identify the type of flowers based on the position of calyx, corolla and androecium with respect to the ovary from the given figures (a) and (b)

    two flower longitudinal sections (a) and (b) showing ovary position

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  15. Match List I with List II

    List I: A. Rhizopus; B. Ustilago; C. Puccinia; D. Agaricus

    List II: I. Mushroom; II. Smut fungus; III. Bread mould; IV. Rust fungus

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  16. The type of conservation in which the threatened species are taken out from their natural habitat and placed in special setting where they can be protected and given special care is called;

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  17. Match List I with List II

    List I: A. Nucleolus; B. Centriole; C. Leucoplasts; D. Golgi apparatus

    List II: I. Site of formation of glycolipid; II. Organization like the cartwheel; III. Site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis; IV. For storing nutrients

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  18. The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell of the plant is called:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  19. Formation of interfascicular cambium from fully developed parenchyma cells is an example for

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  20. Which one of the following can be explained on the basis of Mendel's Law of Dominance?

    A. Out of one pair of factors one is dominant and the other is recessive.

    B. Alleles do not show any expression and both the characters appear as such in \(F_2\) generation.

    C. Factors occur in pairs in normal diploid plants.

    D. The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called factor.

    E. The expression of only one of the parental characters is found in a monohybrid cross.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  21. Identify the part of the seed from the given figure which is destined to form root when the seed germinates.

    longitudinal section of a monocot seed with labelled parts A, B, C, D

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  22. Match List I with List II

    List I: A. Two or more alternative forms of a gene; B. Cross of \(F_1\) progeny with homozygous recessive parent; C. Cross of \(F_1\) progeny with any of the parents; D. Number of chromosome sets in plant

    List II: I. Back cross; II. Ploidy; III. Allele; IV. Test cross

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  23. Identify the set of correct statements:

    A. The flowers of Vallisneria are colourful and produce nectar.

    B. The flowers of waterlily are not pollinated by water.

    C. In most of water-pollinated species, the pollen grains are protected from wetting.

    D. Pollen grains of some hydrophytes are long and ribbon like.

    E. In some hydrophytes, the pollen grains are carried passively inside water.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  24. Inhibition of Succinic dehydrogenase enzyme by malonate is a classical example of:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  25. List of endangered species was released by-

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  26. Lecithin, a small molecular weight organic compound found in living tissues, is an example of:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  27. Which of the following is an example of actinomorphic flower?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  28. Tropical regions show greatest level of species richness because

    A. Tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years, hence more time was available for species diversification.

    B. Tropical environments are more seasonal.

    C. More solar energy is available in tropics.

    D. Constant environments promote niche specialization.

    E. Tropical environments are constant and predictable.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  29. Bulliform cells are responsible for

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  30. A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by the three regions in DNA and these are with respect to upstream and down stream end:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  31. Which one of the following is not a criterion for classification of fungi?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  32. In the given figure, which component has thin outer walls and highly thickened inner walls?

    stomatal guard cells with labelled parts A, B, C, D

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  33. Match List I with List II

    List I (Types of Stamens): A. Monoadelphous; B. Diadelphous; C. Polyadelphous; D. Epiphyllous

    List II (Example): I. Citrus; II. Pea; III. Lily; IV. China-rose

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  34. The DNA present in chloroplast is:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  35. Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements:

    In the members of Phaeophyceae,

    A. Asexual reproduction occurs usually by biflagellate zoospores.

    B. Sexual reproduction is by oogamous method only.

    C. Stored food is in the form of carbohydrates which is either mannitol or laminarin.

    D. The major pigments found are chlorophyll a, c and carotenoids and xanthophyll.

    E. Vegetative cells have a cellulosic wall, usually covered on the outside by gelatinous coating of algin.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  36. Match List I with List II

    List I: A. Citric acid cycle; B. Glycolysis; C. Electron transport system; D. Proton gradient

    List II: I. Cytoplasm; II. Mitochondrial matrix; III. Intermembrane space of mitochondria; IV. Inner mitochondrial membrane

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  37. Given below are two statements:

    Statement I : In \(C_3\) plants, some \(O_2\) binds to RuBisCO, hence \(CO_2\) fixation is decreased.

    Statement II : In \(C_4\) plants, mesophyll cells show very little photorespiration while bundle sheath cells do not show photorespiration.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  38. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the process of replication in E.coli?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  39. Match List I with List II

    List I: A. Robert May; B. Alexander von Humboldt; C. Paul Ehrlich; D. David Tilman

    List II: I. Species-Area relationship; II. Long term ecosystem experiment using out door plots; III. Global species diversity at about 7 million; IV. Rivet popper hypothesis

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  40. Match List I with List II

    List I: A. Frederick Griffith; B. Francois Jacob & Jacque Monod; C. Har Gobind Khorana; D. Meselson & Stahl

    List II: I. Genetic code; II. Semi-conservative mode of DNA replication; III. Transformation; IV. Lac operon

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  41. In an ecosystem if the Net Primary Productivity (NPP) of first trophic level is

    \(100x\,(kcal\,m^{-2})\,yr^{-1}\), what would be the GPP (Gross Primary Productivity) of the third trophic level of the same ecosystem?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  42. Match List I with List II

    List I: A. Rose; B. Pea; C. Cotton; D. Mango

    List II: I. Twisted aestivation; II. Perigynous flower; III. Drupe; IV. Marginal placentation

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  43. Identify the correct description about the given figure:

    dense spike-like inflorescence with long exposed stamens

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  44. Identify the step in tricarboxylic acid cycle, which does not involve oxidation of substrate.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  45. Spraying sugarcane crop with which of the following plant growth regulators, increases the length of stem, thus, increasing the yield?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  46. Match List I with List II

    List I: A. GLUT-4; B. Insulin; C. Trypsin; D. Collagen

    List II: I. Hormone; II. Enzyme; III. Intercellular ground substance; IV. Enables glucose transport into cells

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  47. Which of the following are fused in somatic hybridization involving two varieties of plants?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  48. Match List I with List II :

    List I:

    A. Lipase

    B. Nuclease

    C. Protease

    D. Amylase

    List II:

    I. Peptide bond

    II. Ester bond

    III. Glycosidic bond

    IV. Phosphodiester bond

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  49. Following are the stages of cell division :

    A. Gap 2 phase

    B. Cytokinesis

    C. Synthesis phase

    D. Karyokinesis

    E. Gap 1 phase

    Choose the correct sequence of stages from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  50. Match List I with List II :

    List I:

    A. Axoneme

    B. Cartwheel pattern

    C. Crista

    D. Satellite

    List II:

    I. Centriole

    II. Cilia and flagella

    III. Chromosome

    IV. Mitochondria

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  51. Match List I with List II :

    List I (Sub Phases of Prophase I):

    A. Diakinesis

    B. Pachytene

    C. Zygotene

    D. Leptotene

    List II (Specific characters):

    I. Synaptonemal complex formation

    II. Completion of terminalisation of chiasmata

    III. Chromosomes look like thin threads

    IV. Appearance of recombination nodules

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  52. Match List I with List II :

    List I:

    A. Down's syndrome

    B. α-Thalassemia

    C. β-Thalassemia

    D. Klinefelter's syndrome

    List II:

    I. \(11^{th}\) chromosome

    II. 'X' chromosome

    III. \(21^{st}\) chromosome

    IV. \(16^{th}\) chromosome

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  53. Which one is the correct product of DNA dependent RNA polymerase to the given template?

    3'TACATGGCAAATATCCATTCA5'

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  54. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : Gause's competitive exclusion principle states that two closely related species competing for different resources cannot exist indefinitely.

    Statement II : According to Gause's principle, during competition, the inferior will be eliminated. This may be true if resources are limiting.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  55. Match List I with List II :

    List I:

    A. RNA polymerase III

    B. Termination of transcription

    C. Splicing of Exons

    D. TATA box

    List II:

    I. snRNPs

    II. Promotor

    III. Rho factor

    IV. SnRNAs, tRNA

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  56. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : Mitochondria and chloroplasts are both double membrane bound organelles.

    Statement II : Inner membrane of mitochondria is relatively less permeable, as compared to chloroplast.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  57. Regarding catalytic cycle of an enzyme action, select the correct sequential steps :

    A. Substrate enzyme complex formation.

    B. Free enzyme ready to bind with another substrate.

    C. Release of products.

    D. Chemical bonds of the substrate broken.

    E. Substrate binding to active site.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  58. As per ABO blood grouping system, the blood group of father is \(B^+\), mother is \(A^+\) and child is \(O^+\). Their respective genotype can be

    A. \(I^Bi\) / \(I^Ai\) / \(ii\)

    B. \(I^BI^B\) / \(I^AI^A\) / \(ii\)

    C. \(I^AI^B\) / \(iI^A\) / \(I^Bi\)

    D. \(I^Ai\) / \(I^Bi\) / \(I^Ai\)

    E. \(iI^B\) / \(iI^A\) / \(I^AI^B\)

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

NEET UG 2023 question paper (official, booklet G6)

Full paper →
  1. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :

    Assertion A : The first stage of gametophyte in the life cycle of moss is protonema stage.

    Reason R : Protonema develops directly from spores produced in capsule.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  2. Cellulose does not form blue colour with Iodine because

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  3. Which micronutrient is required for splitting of water molecule during photosynthesis?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  4. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  5. The thickness of ozone in a column of air in the atmosphere is measured in terms of :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  6. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :

    Assertion A : ATP is used at two steps in glycolysis.

    Reason R : First ATP is used in converting glucose into glucose-6-phosphate and second ATP is used in conversion of fructose-6-phosphate into fructose-1-6-diphosphate.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  7. Among 'The Evil Quartet', which one is considered the most important cause driving extinction of species?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  8. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  9. Which hormone promotes internode/petiole elongation in deep water rice?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  10. Frequency of recombination between gene pairs on same chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes to map their position on chromosome, was used for the first time by

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  11. How many ATP and NADPH\(_2\) are required for the synthesis of one molecule of Glucose during Calvin cycle?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  12. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in Eukaryotes?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  13. Family Fabaceae differs from Solanaceae and Liliaceae. With respect to the stamens, pick out the characteristics specific to family Fabaceae but not found in Solanaceae or Liliaceae.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  14. The process of appearance of recombination nodules occurs at which sub stage of prophase I in meiosis?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  15. In the equation

    \(GPP - R = NPP\)

    GPP is Gross Primary Productivity

    NPP is Net Primary Productivity

    R here is ______.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  16. The reaction centre in PS II has an absorption maxima at

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  17. Unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material was first proposed by

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  18. Spraying of which of the following phytohormone on juvenile conifers helps in hastening the maturity period, that leads to early seed production?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  19. What is the function of tassels in the corn cob?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  20. In angiosperm, the haploid, diploid and triploid structures of a fertilized embryo sac sequentially are :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  21. Large, colourful, fragrant flowers with nectar are seen in :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  22. In tissue culture experiments, leaf mesophyll cells are put in a culture medium to form callus. This phenomenon may be called as :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  23. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : The forces generated by transpiration can lift a xylem-sized column of water over 130 meters height.

    Statement II : Transpiration cools leaf surfaces sometimes 10 to 15 degrees, by evaporative cooling.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  24. The historic Convention on Biological Diversity, 'The Earth Summit' was held in Rio de Janeiro in the year :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  25. Movement and accumulation of ions across a membrane against their concentration gradient can be explained by

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  26. Axile placentation is observed in

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  27. Identify the correct statements :

    A. Detrivores perform fragmentation.

    B. The humus is further degraded by some microbes during mineralization.

    C. Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil and get precipitated by a process called leaching.

    D. The detritus food chain begins with living organisms.

    E. Earthworms break down detritus into smaller particles by a process called catabolism.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  28. Among eukaryotes, replication of DNA takes place in -

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  29. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : Endarch and exarch are the terms often used for describing the position of secondary xylem in the plant body.

    Statement II : Exarch condition is the most common feature of the root system.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  30. The phenomenon of pleiotropism refers to

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  31. Identify the pair of heterosporous pteridophytes among the following :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  32. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :

    Assertion A : Late wood has fewer xylary elements with narrow vessels.

    Reason R : Cambium is less active in winters.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  33. Identify the correct statements :

    A. Lenticels are the lens-shaped openings permitting the exchange of gases.

    B. Bark formed early in the season is called hard bark.

    C. Bark is a technical term that refers to all tissues exterior to vascular cambium.

    D. Bark refers to periderm and secondary phloem.

    E. Phellogen is single-layered in thickness.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  34. Match List I with List II :

    List I | List II

    A. M Phase | I. Proteins are synthesized

    B. G\(_2\) Phase | II. Inactive phase

    C. Quiescent stage | III. Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication

    D. G\(_1\) Phase | IV. Equational division

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  35. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :

    Assertion A : In gymnosperms the pollen grains are released from the microsporangium and carried by air currents.

    Reason R : Air currents carry the pollen grains to the mouth of the archegonia where the male gametes are discharged and pollen tube is not formed.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  36. Match List I with List II :

    List I | List II

    A. Iron | I. Synthesis of auxin

    B. Zinc | II. Component of nitrate reductase

    C. Boron | III. Activator of catalase

    D. Molybdenum | IV. Cell elongation and differentiation

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  37. Which of the following combinations is required for chemiosmosis?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  38. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  39. Which of the following statements are correct about Klinefelter's Syndrome?

    A. This disorder was first described by Langdon Down (1866).

    B. Such an individual has overall masculine development. However, the feminine development is also expressed.

    C. The affected individual is short statured.

    D. Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded.

    E. Such individuals are sterile.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  40. Match List I with List II :

    List I (Interaction) | List II (Species A and B)

    A. Mutualism | I. +(A), O(B)

    B. Commensalism | II. -(A), O(B)

    C. Amensalism | III. +(A), -(B)

    D. Parasitism | IV. +(A), +(B)

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  41. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :

    Assertion A : A flower is defined as modified shoot wherein the shoot apical meristem changes to floral meristem.

    Reason R : Internode of the shoot gets condensed to produce different floral appendages laterally at successive nodes instead of leaves.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  42. How many different proteins does the ribosome consist of?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  43. Match List I with List II :

    List I | List II

    A. Cohesion | I. More attraction in liquid phase

    B. Adhesion | II. Mutual attraction among water molecules

    C. Surface tension | III. Water loss in liquid phase

    D. Guttation | IV. Attraction towards polar surfaces

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  44. Match List I with List II :

    List I | List II

    A. Oxidative decarboxylation | I. Citrate synthase

    B. Glycolysis | II. Pyruvate dehydrogenase

    C. Oxidative phosphorylation | III. Electron transport system

    D. Tricarboxylic acid cycle | IV. EMP pathway

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  45. Melonate inhibits the growth of pathogenic bacteria by inhibiting the activity of

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  46. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : Gause's 'Competitive Exclusion Principle' states that two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually.

    Statement II : In general, carnivores are more adversely affected by competition than herbivores.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  47. Match List I with List II.

    List I: A. Gene 'a'; B. Gene 'y'; C. Gene 'i'; D. Gene 'z'

    List II: I. β-galactosidase; II. Transacetylase; III. Permease; IV. Repressor protein

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  48. Which of the following are NOT considered as the part of endomembrane system?

    A. Mitochondria

    B. Endoplasmic Reticulum

    C. Chloroplasts

    D. Golgi complex

    E. Peroxisomes

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  49. Match List I with List II.

    List I (Interacting species): A. A Leopard and a Lion in a forest/grassland; B. A Cuckoo laying egg in a Crow's nest; C. Fungi and root of a higher plant in Mycorrtizae; D. A cattle egret and a Cattle in a field

    List II (Name of Interaction): I. Competition; II. Brood parasitism; III. Mutualism; IV. Commensalism

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  50. Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a temporarily inactive state whereas high temperature destroys enzymatic activity because proteins are denatured by heat.

    Statement II: When the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its molecular structure and inhibits the activity of the enzyme, it is known as competitive inhibitor.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  51. Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: A protein is imagined as a line, the left end represented by first amino acid (C-terminal) and the right end represented by last amino acid (N-terminal)

    Statement II: Adult human haemoglobin, consists of 4 subunits (two subunits of \(\alpha\) type and two subunits of \(\beta\) type.)

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  52. Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Electrostatic precipitator is most widely used in thermal power plant.

    Statement II: Electrostatic precipitator in thermal power plant removes ionising radiations

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  53. Which of the following functions is carried out by cytoskeleton in a cell?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  54. Broad palm with single palm crease is visible in a person suffering from-

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  55. Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: In prokaryotes, the positively charged DNA is held with some negatively charged proteins in a region called nucleoid.

    Statement II: In eukaryotes, the negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form nucleosome.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  56. Which of the following statements is correct?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  57. Which one of the following symbols represents mating between relatives in human pedigree analysis?

    Four pedigree symbol options (1)-(4) for mating between relatives

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  58. Match List I with List II.

    List I: A. Logistic growth; B. Exponential growth; C. Expanding age pyramid; D. Stable age pyramid

    List II: I. Unlimited resource availability condition; II. Limited resource availability condition; III. The percent individuals of pre-reproductive age is largest followed by reproductive and post reproductive age groups; IV. The percent individuals of pre-reproductives and reproductive age group are same

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  59. Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: During G\(_0\) phase of cell cycle, the cell is metabolically inactive.

    Statement II: The centrosome undergoes duplication during S phase of interphase.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  60. Which one of the following is the sequence on corresponding coding strand, if the sequence on mRNA formed is as follows

    5' AUCGAUCGAUCGAUCGAUCG AUCG AUCG 3'?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  61. Select the correct statements.

    A. Tetrad formation is seen during Leptotene.

    B. During Anaphase, the centromeres split and chromatids separate.

    C. Terminalization takes place during Pachytene.

    D. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER are reformed during Telophase.

    E. Crossing over takes place between sister chromatids of homologous chromosome.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

NEET UG 2022 question paper (official, booklet R6)

Full paper →
  1. Which of the following is not observed during apoplastic pathway ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  2. The device which can remove particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant is :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  3. Which one of the following never occurs during mitotic cell division ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  4. Hydrocolloid carrageen is obtained from :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  5. Read the following statements about the vascular bundles :

    (a) In roots, xylem and phloem in a vascular bundle are arranged in an alternate manner along the different radii.

    (b) Conjoint closed vascular bundles do not possess cambium

    (c) In open vascular bundles, cambium is present in between xylem and phloem

    (d) The vascular bundles of dicotyledonous stem possess endarch protoxylem

    (e) In monocotyledonous root, usually there are more than six xylem bundles present

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  6. DNA polymorphism forms the basis of :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  7. The appearance of recombination nodules on homologous chromosomes during meiosis characterizes :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  8. The flowers are Zygomorphic in :

    (a) Mustard

    (b) Gulmohar

    (c) Cassia

    (d) Datura

    (e) Chilly

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  9. Production of Cucumber has increased manifold in recent years. Application of which of the following phytohormones has resulted in this increased yield as the hormone is known to produce female flowers in the plants :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  10. In old trees the greater part of seco[...] dark brown and resistant to insect attack due [...]

    (a) secretion of secondary metabolites and their deposition in the lumen of vessels.

    (b) deposition of organic compounds like tannins and resins in the central layers of stem.

    (c) deposition of suberin and aromatic substances in the outer layer of stem.

    (d) deposition of tannins, gum, resin and aromatic substances in the peripheral layers of stem.

    (e) presence of parenchyma cells, functionally active xylem elements and essential oils.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  11. Which of the following is incorrectly matched ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  12. Which one of the following plants does not show plasticity ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  13. Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements :

    (a) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin

    (b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active

    (c) Histone octomer is wrapped by negatively charged DNA in nucleosome

    (d) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine

    (e) A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp of DNA helix

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  14. Which one of the following produces nitrogen fixing nodules on the roots of Alnus ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  15. Identify the incorrect statement related to Pollination :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  16. Which of the following is not a method of ex situ conservation ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  17. Which one of the following is not true regarding the release of energy during ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis ? It involves :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  18. Which one of the following statements cannot be connected to Predation ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  19. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I :

    Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous

    Statement II :

    Cleistogamy is disadvantageous as there is no chance for cross pollination

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  20. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I :

    The primary CO\(_2\) acceptor in C\(_4\) plants is phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in the mesophyll cells.

    Statement II :

    Mesophyll cells of C\(_4\) plants lack RuBisCo enzyme.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  21. Identify the correct set of statements :

    (a) The leaflets are modified into pointed hard thorns in Citrus and Bougainvillea

    (b) Axillary buds form slender and spirally coiled tendrils in cucumber and pumpkin

    (c) Stem is flattened and fleshy in Opuntia and modified to perform the function of leaves

    (d) Rhizophora shows vertically upward growing roots that help to get oxygen for respiration

    (e) Subaerially growing stems in grasses and strawberry help in vegetative propagation

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  22. The gaseous plant growth regulator is used in plants to :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  23. Which one of the following plants shows vexillary aestivation and diadelphous stamens ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  24. XO type of sex determination can be found in :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  25. What amount of energy is released from glucose during lactic acid fermentation ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  26. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I :

    Decomposition is a process in which the detritus is degraded into simpler substances by microbes.

    Statement II :

    Decomposition is faster if the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  27. What is the net gain of ATP when each molecule of glucose is converted to two molecules of pyruvic acid ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  28. Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I: (a) Manganese (b) Magnesium (c) Boron (d) Iron

    List - II: (i) Activates the enzyme catalase (ii) Required for pollen germination (iii) Activates enzymes of respiration (iv) Functions in splitting of water during photosynthesis

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  29. Habitat loss and fragmentation, over exploitation, alien species invasion and co-extinction are causes for :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  30. The process of translation of mRNA to proteins begins as soon as :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  31. "Girdling Experiment" was performed by Plant Physiologists to identify the plant tissue through which :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  32. Exoskeleton of arthropods is composed of :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  33. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I :

    Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants and proposed the Laws of Inheritance

    Statement II :

    Seven characters examined by Mendel in his experiment on pea plants were seed shape and colour, flower colour, pod shape and colour, flower position and stem height

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  34. Which part of the fruit, labelled in the given figure makes it a false fruit ?

    Cross-section of fruit with labels A-D

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  35. Addition of more solutes in a given solution will :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  36. The anatomy of springwood shows some peculiar features. Identify the correct set of statements about springwood.

    (a) It is also called as the earlywood

    (b) In spring season cambium produces xylem elements with narrow vessels

    (c) It is lighter in colour

    (d) The springwood along with autumnwood shows alternate concentric rings forming annual rings

    (e) It has lower density

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  37. Which one of the following will accelerate phosphorus cycle ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  38. The entire fleet of buses in Delhi were converted to CNG from diesel. In reference to this, which one of the following statements is false ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  39. What is the role of large bundle shealth cells found around the vascular bundles in C\(_4\) plants ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  40. Which of the following occurs due to the presence of autosome linked dominant trait ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  41. Read the following statements on lipids and find out correct set of statements :

    (a) Lecithin found in the plasma membrane is a glycolipid

    (b) Saturated fatty acids possess one or more c=c bonds

    (c) Gingely oil has lower melting point, hence remains as oil in winter

    (d) Lipids are generally insoluble in water but soluble in some organic solvents

    (e) When fatty acid is esterified with glycerol, monoglycerides are formed

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  42. If a geneticist uses the blind approach for sequencing the whole genome of an organism, followed by assignment of function to different segments, the methodology adopted by him is called as :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  43. Match the plant with the kind of life cycle it exhibits :

    List - I: (a) Spirogyra (b) Fern (c) Funaria (d) Cycas

    List - II: (i) Dominant diploid sporophyte vascular plant, with highly reduced male or female gametophyte (ii) Dominant haploid free-living gametophyte (iii) Dominant diploid sporophyte alternating with reduced gametophyte called prothallus (iv) Dominant haploid leafy gametophyte alternating with partially dependent multicellular sporophyte

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  44. While explaining interspecific interaction of population, (+) sign is assigned for beneficial interaction, (-) sign is assigned for detrimental interaction and (0) for neutral interaction. Which of the following interactions can be assigned (+) for one species and (-) for another species involved in the interaction ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  45. Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I: (a) Metacentric chromosome (b) Acrocentric chromosome (c) Sub-metacentric chromosome (d) Telocentric chromosome

    List - II: (i) Centromere situated close to the end forming one extremely short and one very long arms (ii) Centromere at the terminal end (iii) Centromere in the middle forming two equal arms of chromosomes (iv) Centromere slightly away from the middle forming one shorter arm and one longer arm

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  46. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

    Assertion (A) :

    Mendel's law of Independent assortment does not hold good for the genes that are located closely on the same chromosome.

    Reason (R) :

    Closely located genes assort independently.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  47. Which of the following statements with respect to Endoplasmic Reticulum is incorrect ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  48. Regarding Meiosis, which of the statements is incorrect ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  49. Identify the asexual reproductive structure associated with Penicillium :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  50. A dehydration reaction links two glucose molecules to produce maltose. If the formula for glucose is \(C_6H_{12}O_6\) then what is the formula for maltose ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  51. Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher proteins and healthier fats is called :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  52. Identify the microorganism which is responsible for the production of an immunosuppressive molecule cyclosporin A :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  53. Detritivores breakdown detritus into smaller particles. This process is called :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  54. If '8' Drosophila in a laboratory population of '80' died during a week, the death rate in the population is ______ individuals per Drosophila per week.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  55. In-situ conservation refers to :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  56. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I :

    Mycoplasma can pass through less than 1 micron filter size.

    Statement II :

    Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell wall

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  57. In the taxonomic categories which hierarchial arrangement in ascending order is correct in case of animals ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  58. In an E.coli strain i gene gets mutated and its product can not bind the inducer molecule. If growth medium is provided with lactose, what will be the outcome ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  59. Select the incorrect statement with reference to mitosis :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  60. If the length of a DNA molecule is 1.1 metres, what will be the approximate number of base pairs ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  61. The recombination frequency between the genes a & c is 5%, b & c is 15%, b & d is 9%, a & b is 20%, c & d is 24% and a & d is 29%. What will be the sequence of these genes on a linear chromosome ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  62. If a colour blind female marries a man whose mother was also colour blind, what are the chances of her progeny having colour blindness ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  63. Ten E.coli cells with \(^{15}N\) - dsDNA are incubated in medium containing \(^{14}N\) nucleotide. After 60 minutes, how many E.coli cells will have DNA totally free from \(^{15}N\) ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  64. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I :

    In a scrubber the exhaust from the thermal plant is passed through the electric wires to charge the dust particles.

    Statement II :

    Particulate matter (PM 2.5) can not be removed by scrubber but can be removed by an electrostatic precipitator.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  65. Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I (Biological Molecules): (a) Glycogen (b) Globulin (c) Steroids (d) Thrombin

    List - II (Biological functions): (i) Hormone (ii) Biocatalyst (iii) Antibody (iv) Storage product

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  66. Which of the following is a correct statement ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

NEET UG 2021 question paper (official, booklet M4)

Full paper →
  1. In the equation GPP\(-\)R=NPP

    R represents :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  2. Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which mechanism the competing species might have evolved for their survival ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  3. Amensalism can be represented as :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  4. Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I | List - II

    (a) Cells with active cell division capacity | (i) Vascular tissues

    (b) Tissue having all cells similar in structure and function | (ii) Meristematic tissue

    (c) Tissue having different types of cells | (iii) Sclereids

    (d) Dead cells with highly thickened walls and narrow lumen | (iv) Simple tissue

    Select the correct answer from the options given below.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  5. The production of gametes by the parents, formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood from a diagram called :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  6. DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  7. Gemmae are present in :

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  8. Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called :

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  9. Which of the following is an incorrect statement ?

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  10. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is :

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  11. The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field is :

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  12. Which of the following algae produce Carrageen ?

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  13. Mutations in plant cells can be induced by :

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  14. Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I | List - II

    (a) Protoplast fusion | (i) Totipotency

    (b) Plant tissue culture | (ii) Pomato

    (c) Meristem culture | (iii) Somaclones

    (d) Micropropagation | (iv) Virus free plants

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

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  15. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  16. Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I | List - II

    (a) Lenticels | (i) Phellogen

    (b) Cork cambium | (ii) Suberin deposition

    (c) Secondary cortex | (iii) Exchange of gases

    (d) Cork | (iv) Phelloderm

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  17. The site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism is :

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  18. Which of the following plants is monoecious ?

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  19. When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred as :

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  20. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two kinds of spores. Such plants are known as :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  21. Complete the flow chart on central dogma.

    (a) DNA (with circular arrow) --(b)--> mRNA --(c)--> (d)

    central dogma flow chart DNA -> mRNA -> (d)

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  22. Which of the following statements is not correct ?

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  23. Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reserve food material ?

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  24. Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I | List - II

    (a) Cohesion | (i) More attraction in liquid phase

    (b) Adhesion | (ii) Mutual attraction among water molecules

    (c) Surface tension | (iii) Water loss in liquid phase

    (d) Guttation | (iv) Attraction towards polar surfaces

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  25. Diadelphous stamens are found in :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  26. Which of the following are not secondary metabolites in plants ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  27. Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I | List - II

    (a) Cristae | (i) Primary constriction in chromosome

    (b) Thylakoids | (ii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus

    (c) Centromere | (iii) Infoldings in mitochondria

    (d) Cisternae | (iv) Flattened membranous sacs in stroma of plastids

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  28. The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma, is :

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  29. The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any given time, is referred as :

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  30. The first stable product of CO\(_2\) fixation in sorghum is :

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  31. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

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  32. Identify the correct statement.

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  33. Match Column - I with Column - II.

    Column - I (floral formulae) | Column - II

    (a) %♀♂ K(5) C1+2+(2) A(9)+1 G̱(1) | (i) Brassicaceae

    (b) ⊕♀♂ K(5) C(5) A5 G̱(2) | (ii) Liliaceae

    (c) ⊕♀♂ P(3+3) A3+3 G̱(3) | (iii) Fabaceae

    (d) ⊕♀♂ K2+2 C4 A2−4 G̱(2) | (iv) Solanaceae

    Select the correct answer from the options given below.

    floral formulae in Column I (a)-(d)

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  34. Select the correct pair.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  35. In the exponential growth equation \(N_t=N_0e^{rt}\), e represents :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  36. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in eukaryotes ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  37. Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I | List - II

    (a) S phase | (i) Proteins are synthesized

    (b) G2 phase | (ii) Inactive phase

    (c) Quiescent stage | (iii) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication

    (d) G1 phase | (iv) DNA replication

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  38. Which of the following statements is correct ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  39. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  40. In some members of which of the following pairs of families, pollen grains retain their viability for months after release ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  41. Match Column - I with Column - II.

    Column - I | Column - II

    (a) Nitrococcus | (i) Denitrification

    (b) Rhizobium | (ii) Conversion of ammonia to nitrite

    (c) Thiobacillus | (iii) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate

    (d) Nitrobacter | (iv) Conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia

    Choose the correct answer from options given below.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  42. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  43. Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I | List - II

    (a) Protein | (i) C=C double bonds

    (b) Unsaturated fatty acid | (ii) Phosphodiester bonds

    (c) Nucleic acid | (iii) Glycosidic bonds

    (d) Polysaccharide | (iv) Peptide bonds

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  44. The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  45. Which of the following RNAs is not required for the synthesis of protein ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  46. Which of the following is not an objective of Biofortification in crops ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  47. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During interphase of Mitosis if the number of chromosomes at G\(_1\) phase is 8, what would be the number of chromosomes after S phase ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  48. Which is the "Only enzyme" that has "Capability" to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the process of transcription in prokaryotes ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  49. In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what percentage of the progeny will be diseased ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  50. Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  51. Dobson units are used to measure thickness of :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  52. Identify the incorrect pair.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  53. Persons with ‘AB’ blood group are called as "Universal recipients". This is due to :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  54. The centriole undergoes duplication during :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  55. Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I / List - II

    (a) Aspergillus niger (i) Acetic Acid

    (b) Acetobacter aceti (ii) Lactic Acid

    (c) Clostridium butylicum (iii) Citric Acid

    (d) Lactobacillus (iv) Butyric Acid

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  56. If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine in it ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  57. Which one of the following statements about Histones is wrong ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  58. Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I / List - II

    (a) Allen's Rule (i) Kangaroo rat

    (b) Physiological adaptation (ii) Desert lizard

    (c) Behavioural adaptation (iii) Marine fish at depth

    (d) Biochemical adaptation (iv) Polar seal

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  59. Statement I :

    The codon ‘AUG’ codes for methionine and phenylalanine.

    Statement II :

    ‘AAA’ and ‘AAG’ both codons code for the amino acid lysine.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  60. Following are the statements with reference to ‘lipids’.

    (a) Lipids having only single bonds are called unsaturated fatty acids.

    (b) Lecithin is a phospholipid.

    (c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.

    (d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon.

    (e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

NEET UG 2020 question paper (official, booklet E1)

Full paper →
  1. Which of the following is not an attribute of a population ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →