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Zoology

7 chapters 406 solved questions 16 tests

Every question from past board papers on Zoology, newest paper first. Open any question for its full worked answer.

NEET UG 2025 question paper (official, booklet 45)

Full paper →
  1. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  2. What are the potential drawbacks in adoption of the IVF method?

    A. High fatality risk to mother

    B. Expensive instruments and reagents

    C. Husband/wife necessary for being donors

    D. Less adoption of orphans

    E. Not available in India

    F. Possibility that the early embryo does not survive

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  3. What is the name of the blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart in a frog ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  4. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : In the RNA world, RNA is considered the first genetic material evolved to carry out essential life processes. RNA acts as a genetic material and also as a catalyst for some important biochemical reactions in living systems. Being reactive, RNA is unstable.

    Statement II : DNA evolved from RNA and is a more stable genetic material. Its double helical strands being complementary, resist changes by evolving repairing mechanism.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  5. Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I: A. Emphysema; B. Angina Pectoris; C. Glomerulonephritis; D. Tetany

    List - II: I. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca++ in body fluid; II. Damaged alveolar walls and decreased respiratory surface; III. Acute chest pain when not enough oxygen is reaching to heart muscle; IV. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  6. Which of the following statement is correct about location of the male frog copulatory pad ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  7. While trying to find out the characteristic of a newly found animal, a researcher did the histology of adult animal and observed a cavity with presence of mesodermal tissue towards the body wall but no mesodermal tissue was observed towards the alimentary canal. What could be the possible coelome of that animal ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  8. Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I: A. Head; B. Middle piece; C. Acrosome; D. Tail

    List - II: I. Enzymes; II. Sperm motility; III. Energy; IV. Genetic material

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  9. Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by :

    A. Nodal tissue

    B. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata

    C. Adrenal medullary hormones

    D. Adrenal cortical hormones

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  10. In the above represented plasmid an alien piece of DNA is inserted at EcoRI site. Which of the following strategies will be chosen to select the recombinant colonies?

    Plasmid map with BamHI, Tet R, Ori, EcoRI, beta-Galactosidase, amp

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  11. Which of the following genetically engineered organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human insulin?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  12. Which are correct:

    A. Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging detect cancers of internal organs.

    B. Chemotherapeutics drugs are used to kill non-cancerous cells.

    C. α-interferon activate the cancer patients' immune system and helps in destroying the tumour.

    D. Chemotherapeutic drugs are biological response modifiers.

    E. In the case of leukaemia blood cell counts are decreased.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  13. Find the correct statements :

    A. In human pregnancy, the major organ systems are formed at the end of 12 weeks.

    B. In human pregnancy the major organ systems are formed at the end of 8 weeks.

    C. In human pregnancy heart is formed after one month of gestation.

    D. In human pregnancy, limbs and digits develop by the end of second month.

    E. In human pregnancy the appearance of hair is usually observed in the fifth month.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  14. Which of the following diagrams is correct with regard to the proximal (P) and distal (D) tubule of the Nephron.

    Four nephron proximal/distal tubule diagrams (the answer options) showing ion transport arrows

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  15. Identify the part of a bio-reactor which is used as a foam braker from the given figure.

    Stirred-tank bioreactor with parts labelled A, B, C, D

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  16. Neoplastic characteristics of cells refer to :

    A. A mass of proliferating cell

    B. Rapid growth of cells

    C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue

    D. Those confined to original location

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  17. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : The DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used in construction of recombinant DNA.

    Statement II : Smaller size DNA fragments are observed near anode while larger fragments are found near the wells in an agarose gel.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  18. Consider the following :

    A. The reductive division for the human female gametogenesis starts earlier than that of the male gametogenesis.

    B. The gap between the first meiotic division and the second meiotic division is much shorter for males compared to females.

    C. The first polar body is associated with the formation of the primary oocyte.

    D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to disintegration of the endometrium and onset of menstrual bleeding.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  19. All living members of the class Cyclostomata are:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  20. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

    Assertion (A) : All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrate.

    Reason (R) : The members of subphylum vertebrata possess notochord during the embryonic period, the notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  21. Identify the statement that is NOT correct.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  22. Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via RNAi because of -

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  23. The first menstruation is called :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  24. Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I: A. Heart B. Kidney C. Gastro-intestinal tract D. Adrenal Cortex

    List - II: I. Erythropoietin II. Aldosterone III. Atrial natriuretic factor IV. Secretin

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  25. Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of evolution. Select the correct combination of terms to explain the evolution.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  26. After maturation, in primary lymphoid organs, the lymphocytes migrate for interaction with antigens to secondary lymphoid organ(s) / tissue(s) like:

    A. thymus B. bone marrow C. spleen D. lymph nodes E. Peyer's patches

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  27. Consider the following statements regarding function of adrenal medullary hormones :

    A. It causes pupilary constriction

    B. It is a hyperglycemic hormone

    C. It causes piloerection

    D. It increases strength of heart contraction

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  28. Why can't insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  29. Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the hypothalamus ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  30. Role of the water vascular system in Echinoderms is :

    A. Respiration and Locomotion

    B. Excretion and Locomotion

    C. Capture and transport of food

    D. Digestion and Respiration

    E. Digestion and Excretion

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  31. Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is a non-specific type of defence in the human body?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  32. In frog, the Renal portal system is a special venous connection that acts to link :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  33. Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning?

    A. Restriction enzymes

    B. DNA ligase

    C. DNA mutase

    D. DNA recombinase

    E. DNA polymerase

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  34. Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs. Choose the correct answer from the following :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  35. Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I: A. Progesterone B. Relaxin C. Melanocyte stimulating hormone D. Catecholamines

    List - II: I. Pars intermedia II. Ovary III. Adrenal Medulla IV. Corpus luteum

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  36. The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from non-recombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce colour in presence of a chromogenic substrate.

    Given below are two statements about this method:

    Statement I : The blue coloured colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid and they are identified as recombinant colonies.

    Statement II : The colonies without blue colour have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as recombinant colonies.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

NEET UG 2024 question paper (official, booklet S6)

Full paper →
  1. What is the fate of a piece of DNA carrying only gene of interest which is transferred into an alien organism?

    A. The piece of DNA would be able to multiply itself independently in the progeny cells of the organism.

    B. It may get integrated into the genome of the recipient.

    C. It may multiply and be inherited along with the host DNA.

    D. The alien piece of DNA is not an integral part of chromosome.

    E. It shows ability to replicate.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  2. Given below are two statements:

    Statement I : Bt toxins are insect group specific and coded by a gene cry IAc.

    Statement II : Bt toxin exists as inactive protoxin in B. thuringiensis. However, after ingestion by the insect the inactive protoxin gets converted into active form due to acidic pH of the insect gut.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  3. Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point called recognition sequence and it consists of:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  4. The flippers of the Penguins and Dolphins are the example of the

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  5. Match List I with List II :

    List I:

    A. Pleurobrachia

    B. Radula

    C. Stomochord

    D. Air bladder

    List II:

    I. Mollusca

    II. Ctenophora

    III. Osteichthyes

    IV. Hemichordata

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  6. Which of the following is not a component of Fallopian tube?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  7. Following are the stages of pathway for conduction of an action potential through the heart:

    A. AV bundle

    B. Purkinje fibres

    C. AV node

    D. Bundle branches

    E. SA node

    Choose the correct sequence of pathway from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  8. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : The presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity.

    Statement II : The hymen is torn during the first coitus only.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  9. Match List I with List II :

    List I:

    A. α-1 antitrypsin

    B. Cry IAb

    C. Cry IAc

    D. Enzyme replacement therapy

    List II:

    I. Cotton bollworm

    II. ADA deficiency

    III. Emphysema

    IV. Corn borer

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  10. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :

    Assertion A : FSH acts upon ovarian follicles in female and Leydig cells in male.

    Reason R : Growing ovarian follicles secrete estrogen in female while interstitial cells secrete androgen in male human being.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  11. Match List I with List II :

    List I:

    A. Cocaine

    B. Heroin

    C. Morphine

    D. Marijuana

    List II:

    I. Effective sedative in surgery

    II. Cannabis sativa

    III. Erythroxylum

    IV. Papaver somniferum

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  12. Three types of muscles are given as a, b and c. Identify the correct matching pair along with their location in human body :

    Name of muscle/location

    Three muscle tissue drawings (a) skeletal-like striated, (b) smooth, (c) cardiac

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  13. Match List I with List II :

    List I:

    A. Pterophyllum

    B. Myxine

    C. Pristis

    D. Exocoetus

    List II:

    I. Hag fish

    II. Saw fish

    III. Angel fish

    IV. Flying fish

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  14. Match List I with List II :

    List I:

    A. Fibrous joints

    B. Cartilaginous joints

    C. Hinge joints

    D. Ball and socket joints

    List II:

    I. Adjacent vertebrae, limited movement

    II. Humerus and Pectoral girdle, rotational movement

    III. Skull, don't allow any movement

    IV. Knee, help in locomotion

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  15. The "Ti plasmid" of Agrobacterium tumefaciens stands for

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  16. Match List I with List II :

    List I:

    A. Pons

    B. Hypothalamus

    C. Medulla

    D. Cerebellum

    List II:

    I. Provides additional space for Neurons, regulates posture and balance.

    II. Controls respiration and gastric secretions.

    III. Connects different regions of the brain.

    IV. Neuro secretory cells

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  17. Consider the following statements :

    A. Annelids are true coelomates

    B. Poriferans are pseudocoelomates

    C. Aschelminthes are acoelomates

    D. Platyhelminthes are pseudocoelomates

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  18. Which of the following is not a steroid hormone?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  19. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : In the nephron, the descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water and permeable to electrolytes.

    Statement II : The proximal convoluted tubule is lined by simple columnar brush border epithelium and increases the surface area for reabsorption.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  20. Match List I with List II :

    List I:

    A. Common cold

    B. Haemozoin

    C. Widal test

    D. Allergy

    List II:

    I. Plasmodium

    II. Typhoid

    III. Rhinoviruses

    IV. Dust mites

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  21. Match List I with List II :

    List I:

    A. Expiratory capacity

    B. Functional residual capacity

    C. Vital capacity

    D. Inspiratory capacity

    List II:

    I. Expiratory reserve volume + Tidal volume + Inspiratory reserve volume

    II. Tidal volume + Expiratory reserve volume

    III. Tidal volume + Inspiratory reserve volume

    IV. Expiratory reserve volume + Residual volume

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  22. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :

    Assertion A : Breast-feeding during initial period of infant growth is recommended by doctors for bringing a healthy baby.

    Reason R : Colostrum contains several antibodies absolutely essential to develop resistance for the new born baby.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  23. Which one of the following factors will not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  24. Match List I with List II :

    List I:

    A. Typhoid

    B. Leishmaniasis

    C. Ringworm

    D. Filariasis

    List II:

    I. Fungus

    II. Nematode

    III. Protozoa

    IV. Bacteria

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  25. Given below are some stages of human evolution. Arrange them in correct sequence. (Past to Recent)

    A. Homo habilis

    B. Homo sapiens

    C. Homo neanderthalensis

    D. Homo erectus

    Choose the correct sequence of human evolution from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  26. The following diagram showing restriction sites in E.coli cloning vector pBR322. Find the role of 'X' and 'Y' genes :

    pBR322 plasmid map with restriction sites and genes X and Y

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  27. Which of the following factors are favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in alveoli?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  28. In both sexes of cockroach, a pair of jointed filamentous structures called anal cerci are present on :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  29. Which of the following is not a natural/traditional contraceptive method?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  30. Which of the following are Autoimmune disorders?

    A. Myasthenia gravis

    B. Rheumatoid arthritis

    C. Gout

    D. Muscular dystrophy

    E. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  31. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  32. Match List I with List II :

    List I:

    A. Non-medicated IUD

    B. Copper releasing IUD

    C. Hormone releasing IUD

    D. Implants

    List II:

    I. Multiload 375

    II. Progestogens

    III. Lippes loop

    IV. LNG-20

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  33. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : The cerebral hemispheres are connected by nerve tract known as corpus callosum.

    Statement II : The brain stem consists of the medulla oblongata, pons and cerebrum.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  34. Identify the correct option (A), (B), (C), (D) with respect to spermatogenesis.

    [Flow chart: GnRH -> LH -> (B) -> Androgens -> Formation of spermatids; GnRH -> (A) -> (C) -> Factors -> (D)]

    Flow chart of hormonal control of spermatogenesis with blanks A-D

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  35. The following are the statements about non-chordates :

    A. Pharynx is perforated by gill slits.

    B. Notochord is absent.

    C. Central nervous system is dorsal.

    D. Heart is dorsal if present.

    E. Post anal tail is absent.

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  36. Match List I with List II :

    List I:

    A. Unicellular glandular epithelium

    B. Compound epithelium

    C. Multicellular glandular epithelium

    D. Endocrine glandular epithelium

    List II:

    I. Salivary glands

    II. Pancreas

    III. Goblet cells of alimentary canal

    IV. Moist surface of buccal cavity

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  37. Match List I with List II :

    List I:

    A. P wave

    B. QRS complex

    C. T wave

    D. T-P gap

    List II:

    I. Heart muscles are electrically silent.

    II. Depolarisation of ventricles.

    III. Depolarisation of atria.

    IV. Repolarisation of ventricles.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  38. Match List I with List II :

    List I:

    A. Exophthalmic goiter

    B. Acromegaly

    C. Cushing's syndrome

    D. Cretinism

    List II:

    I. Excess secretion of cortisol, moon face & hyperglycemia

    II. Hypo-secretion of thyroid hormone and stunted growth.

    III. Hyper secretion of thyroid hormone & protruding eye balls.

    IV. Excessive secretion of growth hormone.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  39. Match List I with List II :

    List I:

    A. Mesozoic Era

    B. Proterozoic Era

    C. Cenozoic Era

    D. Paleozoic Era

    List II:

    I. Lower invertebrates

    II. Fish & Amphibia

    III. Birds & Reptiles

    IV. Mammals

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  40. Match List I with List II related to digestive system of cockroach.

    List I:

    A. The structures used for storing of food.

    B. Ring of 6-8 blind tubules at junction of foregut and midgut.

    C. Ring of 100-150 yellow coloured thin filaments at junction of midgut and hindgut.

    D. The structures used for grinding the food.

    List II:

    I. Gizzard

    II. Gastric Caeca

    III. Malpighian tubules

    IV. Crop

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  41. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells including lymphocytes are produced.

    Statement II : Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro environments for the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  42. Choose the correct statement given below regarding juxta medullary nephron.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

NEET UG 2023 question paper (official, booklet G6)

Full paper →
  1. Upon exposure to UV radiation, DNA stained with ethidium bromide will show

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  2. During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  3. In gene gun method used to introduce alien DNA into host cells, microparticles of ________ metal are used.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  4. Main steps in the formation of Recombinant DNA are given below. Arrange these steps in a correct sequence.

    A. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell.

    B. Cutting of DNA at specific location by restriction enzyme.

    C. Isolation of desired DNA fragment.

    D. Amplification of gene of interest using PCR.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  5. Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Ligaments are dense irregular tissue.

    Statement II: Cartilage is dense regular tissue.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  6. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

    Assertion A: Amniocentesis for sex determination is one of the strategies of Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme.

    Reason R: Ban on amniocentesis checks increasing menace of female foeticide.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  7. Match List I with List II.

    List I (Type of Joint): A. Cartilaginous Joint; B. Ball and Socket Joint; C. Fibrous Joint; D. Saddle Joint

    List II (Found between): I. Between flat skull bones; II. Between adjacent vertebrae in vertebral column; III. Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb; IV. Between Humerus and Pectoral girdle

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  8. Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Vas deferens receives a duct from seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as the ejaculatory duct.

    Statement II: The cavity of the cervix is called cervical canal which along with vagina forms birth canal.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  9. Which one of the following techniques does not serve the purpose of early diagnosis of a disease for its early treatment?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  10. Which one of the following common sexually transmitted diseases is completely curable when detected early and treated properly?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  11. Which of the following is not a cloning vector?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  12. Match List I with List II.

    List I: A. CCK; B. GIP; C. ANF; D. ADH

    List II: I. Kidney; II. Heart; III. Gastric gland; IV. Pancreas

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  13. Match List I with List II.

    List I: A. Taenia; B. Paramoecium; C. Periplaneta; D. Pheretima

    List II: I. Nephridia; II. Contractile vacuole; III. Flame cells; IV. Urecose gland

    Choose the correct answer from the options give below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  14. Once the undigested and unabsorbed substances enter the caecum, their backflow is prevented by-

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  15. Match List I with List II with respect to human eye.

    List I: A. Fovea; B. Iris; C. Blind spot; D. Sclera

    List II: I. Visible coloured portion of eye that regulates diameter of pupil.; II. External layer of eye formed of dense connective tissue.; III. Point of greatest visual acuity or resolution.; IV. Point where optic nerve leaves the eyeball and photoreceptor cells are absent.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  16. Which of the following statements are correct regarding female reproductive cycle?

    A. In non-primate mammals cyclical changes during reproduction are called oestrus cycle.

    B. First menstrual cycle begins at puberty and is called menopause.

    C. Lack of menstruation may be indicative of pregnancy.

    D. Cyclic menstruation extends between menarche and menopause.

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  17. Radial symmetry is NOT found in adults of phylum ________.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  18. Match List I with List II.

    List I: A. Vasectomy; B. Coitus interruptus; C. Cervical caps; D. Saheli

    List II: I. Oral method; II. Barrier method; III. Surgical method; IV. Natural method

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  19. Match List I with List II.

    List I (Cells): A. Peptic cells; B. Goblet cells; C. Oxyntic cells; D. Hepatic cells

    List II (Secretion): I. Mucus; II. Bile juice; III. Proenzyme pepsinogen; IV. HCl and intrinsic factor for absorption of vitamin B\(_{12}\)

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  20. In which blood corpuscles, the HIV undergoes replication and produces progeny viruses?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  21. Vital capacity of lung is ________.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  22. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

    Assertion A: Endometrium is necessary for implantation of blastocyst.

    Reason R: In the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerates that causes disintegration of endometrium.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  23. Select the correct group/set of Australian Marsupials exhibiting adaptive radiation.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  24. Match List I with List II.

    List I: A. Heroin; B. Marijuana; C. Cocaine; D. Morphine

    List II: I. Effect on cardiovascular system; II. Slow down body function; III. Painkiller; IV. Interfere with transport of dopamine

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  25. Match List I with List II.

    List I: A. Ringworm; B. Filariasis; C. Malaria; D. Pneumonia

    List II: I. Haemophilus influenzae; II. Trichophyton; III. Wuchereria bancrofti; IV. Plasmodium vivax

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  26. Given below are statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

    Assertion A: Nephrons are of two types: Cortical & Juxta medullary, based on their relative position in cortex and medulla.

    Reason R: Juxta medullary nephrons have short loop of Henle whereas, cortical nephrons have longer loop of Henle.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  27. Match List I with List II.

    List I: A. P - wave; B. Q - wave; C. QRS complex; D. T - wave

    List II: I. Beginning of systole; II. Repolarisation of ventricles; III. Depolarisation of atria; IV. Depolarisation of ventricles

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  28. Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: RNA mutates at a faster rate.

    Statement II: Viruses having RNA genome and shorter life span mutate and evolve faster.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  29. The parts of human brain that helps in regulation of sexual behaviour, expression of excitement, pleasure, rage, fear etc. are :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  30. Which of the following statements are correct?

    A. An excessive loss of body fluid from the body switches off osmoreceptors.

    B. ADH facilitates water reabsorption to prevent diuresis.

    C. ANF causes vasodilation.

    D. ADH causes increase in blood pressure.

    E. ADH is responsible for decrease in GFR.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  31. Select the correct statements with reference to chordates.

    A. Presence of a mid-dorsal, solid and double nerve cord.

    B. Presence of closed circulatory system.

    C. Presence of paired pharyngeal gillslits.

    D. Presence of dorsal heart

    E. Triploblastic pseudocoelomate animals.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  32. Which of the following is characteristic feature of cockroach regarding sexual dimorphism ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  33. Which of the following are NOT under the control of thyroid hormone?

    A. Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance

    B. Regulation of basal metabolic rate

    C. Normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle

    D. Development of immune system

    E. Support the process of R.B.Cs formation

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  34. The unique mammalian characteristics are:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  35. Which one of the following is NOT an advantage of inbreeding?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  36. Which of the following statements are correct ?

    A. Basophils are most abundant cells of the total WBCs

    B. Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin

    C. Basophils are involved in inflammatory response

    D. Basophils have kidney shaped nucleus

    E. Basophils are agranulocytes

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  37. In cockroach, excretion is brought about by-

    A. Phallic gland

    B. Urecose gland

    C. Nephrocytes

    D. Fat body

    E. Collaterial glands

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  38. Match List I with List II.

    List I: A. Mast cells; B. Inner surface of bronchiole; C. Blood; D. Tubular parts of nephron

    List II: I. Ciliated epithelium; II. Areolar connective tissue; III. Cuboidal epithelium; IV. specialised connective tissue

    Choose the correct answer from the options give below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  39. Which of the following statements are correct regarding skeletal muscle?

    A. Muscle bundles are held together by collagenous connective tissue layer called fascicle.

    B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibre is a store house of calcium ions.

    C. Striated appearance of skeletal muscle fibre is due to distribution pattern of actin and myosin proteins.

    D. M line is considered as functional unit of contraction called sarcomere.

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

NEET UG 2022 question paper (official, booklet R6)

Full paper →
  1. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

    Assertion (A) :

    Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification

    Reason (R) :

    The ampicillin resistant gene is used as a selectable marker to check transformation

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  2. Which one of the following statement is not true regarding gel electrophoresis technique ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  3. In the following palindromic base sequences of DNA, which one can be cut easily by particular restriction enzyme ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  4. Transposons can be used during which one of the following ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  5. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I :

    The coagulum is formed of network of threads called thrombins.

    Statement II :

    Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  6. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I :

    Restriction endonucleases recognise specific sequence to cut DNA known as palindromic nucleotide sequence.

    Statement II :

    Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA strand a little away from the centre of the palindromic site.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  7. Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of pellet or paste by :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  8. Which of the following is present between the adjacent bones of the vertebral column ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  9. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

    Assertion (A) :

    All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.

    Reason (R) :

    Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in the adult vertebrates.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  10. Lippe's loop is a type of contraceptive used as :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  11. At which stage of life the oogenesis process is initiated ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  12. Which of the following is not a connective tissue ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  13. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

    Assertion (A) :

    Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chances of fractures.

    Reason (R) :

    Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  14. Which of the following statements are true for spermatogenesis but do not hold true for Oogenesis ?

    (a) It results in the formation of haploid gametes

    (b) Differentiation of gamete occurs after the completion of meiosis

    (c) Meiosis occurs continuously in a mitotically dividing stem cell population

    (d) It is controlled by the Luteinising hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) secreted by the anterior pituitary

    (e) It is initiated at puberty

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  15. Tegmina in cockroach, arises from :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  16. In which of the following animals, digestive tract has additional chambers like crop and gizzard ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  17. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I :

    The release of sperms into the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation.

    Statement II :

    Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of sperms from spermatogonia.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  18. Which of the following functions is not performed by secretions from salivary glands ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  19. In gene therapy of Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency, the patient requires periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes because :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  20. Which of the following is not the function of conducting part of respiratory system ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  21. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I :

    Fatty acids and glycerols cannot be absorbed into the blood.

    Statement II :

    Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals carry chylomicrons into lymphatic vessels and ultimately into the blood.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  22. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I :

    Autoimmune disorder is a condition where body defense mechanism recognizes its own cells as foreign bodies.

    Statement II :

    Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where body does not attack self cells.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  23. Which of the following is a correct match for disease and its symptoms ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  24. Natural selection where more individuals acquire specific character value other than the mean character value, leads to :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  25. Under normal physiological conditions in human being every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver ______ ml of \(O_2\) to the tissues.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  26. Select the incorrect statement with respect to acquired immunity.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  27. Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I: (a) Bronchioles (b) Goblet cell (c) Tendons (d) Adipose Tissue

    List - II: (i) Dense Regular Connective Tissue (ii) Loose Connective Tissue (iii) Glandular Tissue (iv) Ciliated Epithelium

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  28. Which one of the following statements is correct ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  29. Statements related to human Insulin are given below. Which statement(s) is/are correct about genetically engineered Insulin ?

    (a) Pro-hormone insulin contain extra stretch of C-peptide

    (b) A-peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin were produced separately in E.coli, extracted and combined by creating disulphide bond between them.

    (c) Insulin used for treating Diabetes was extracted from Cattles and Pigs.

    (d) Pro-hormone Insulin needs to be processed for converting into a mature and functional hormone.

    (e) Some patients develop allergic reactions to the foreign insulin.

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  30. Which of the following are not the effects of Parathyroid hormone ?

    (a) Stimulates the process of bone resorption

    (b) Decreases \(Ca^{2+}\) level in blood

    (c) Reabsorption of \(Ca^{2+}\) by renal tubules

    (d) Decreases the absorption of \(Ca^{2+}\) from digested food

    (e) Increases metabolism of carbohydrates

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  31. Select the incorrect statement regarding synapses :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  32. Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a cloning vector ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  33. Which of the following statements is not true ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  34. Match List - I with List - II with respect to methods of Contraception and their respective actions.

    List - I: (a) Diaphragms (b) Contraceptive Pills (c) Intra Uterine Devices (d) Lactational Amenorrhea

    List - II: (i) Inhibit ovulation and Implantation (ii) Increase phagocytosis of sperm within Uterus (iii) Absence of Menstrual cycle and ovulation following parturition (iv) They cover the cervix blocking the entry of sperms

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

NEET UG 2021 question paper (official, booklet M4)

Full paper →
  1. Which of the following is not an application of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  2. During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  3. The factor that leads to Founder effect in a population is :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  4. When gene targetting involving gene amplification is attempted in an individual’s tissue to treat disease, it is known as :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  5. Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  6. Plasmid pBR322 has PstI restriction enzyme site within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for β-galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  7. Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of cells, followed by its detection using autoradiography because :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  8. Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long bones ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  9. Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  10. Which one of the following is an example of Hormone releasing IUD ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  11. Which of the following characteristics is incorrect with respect to cockroach ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  12. Select the favourable conditions required for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  13. Sphincter of oddi is present at :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  14. Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I / List - II

    (a) Metamerism (i) Coelenterata

    (b) Canal system (ii) Ctenophora

    (c) Comb plates (iii) Annelida

    (d) Cnidoblasts (iv) Porifera

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  15. A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  16. The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O\(_2\)) and carbon dioxide (CO\(_2\)) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) are :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  17. Which of the following statements wrongly represents the nature of smooth muscle ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  18. Match the following :

    List - I / List - II

    (a) Physalia (i) Pearl oyster

    (b) Limulus (ii) Portuguese Man of War

    (c) Ancylostoma (iii) Living fossil

    (d) Pinctada (iv) Hookworm

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  19. Succus entericus is referred to as :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  20. Veneral diseases can spread through :

    (a) Using sterile needles

    (b) Transfusion of blood from infected person

    (c) Infected mother to foetus

    (d) Kissing

    (e) Inheritance

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  21. With regard to insulin choose correct options.

    (a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.

    (b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-peptide.

    (c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide.

    (d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected by disulphide bridges.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  22. For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology is very important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for early detection ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  23. Read the following statements.

    (a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.

    (b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals.

    (c) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization.

    (d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion.

    (e) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  24. During the process of gene amplification using PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained in the beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR will be affected first ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  25. Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  26. Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present on :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  27. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  28. Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C. formation is produced by :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  29. Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I / List - II

    (a) Vaults (i) Entry of sperm through Cervix is blocked

    (b) IUDs (ii) Removal of Vas deferens

    (c) Vasectomy (iii) Phagocytosis of sperms within the Uterus

    (d) Tubectomy (iv) Removal of fallopian tube

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  30. Which of the following secretes the hormone, relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  31. Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop the leakage of the substances across a tissue and facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  32. Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  33. Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I / List - II

    (a) Filariasis (i) Haemophilus influenzae

    (b) Amoebiasis (ii) Trichophyton

    (c) Pneumonia (iii) Wuchereria bancrofti

    (d) Ringworm (iv) Entamoeba histolytica

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  34. Which of the following is not a step in Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET) ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  35. Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I / List - II

    (a) Scapula (i) Cartilaginous joints

    (b) Cranium (ii) Flat bone

    (c) Sternum (iii) Fibrous joints

    (d) Vertebral column (iv) Triangular flat bone

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  36. The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  37. Assertion (A) :

    A person goes to high altitude and experiences ‘altitude sickness’ with symptoms like breathing difficulty and heart palpitations.

    Reason (R) :

    Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitude, the body does not get sufficient oxygen.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  38. Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I / List - II

    (a) Adaptive radiation (i) Selection of resistant varieties due to excessive use of herbicides and pesticides

    (b) Convergent evolution (ii) Bones of forelimbs in Man and Whale

    (c) Divergent evolution (iii) Wings of Butterfly and Bird

    (d) Evolution by anthropogenic action (iv) Darwin Finches

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  39. During muscular contraction which of the following events occur ?

    (a) ‘H’ zone disappears

    (b) ‘A’ band widens

    (c) ‘I’ band reduces in width

    (d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and Pi

    (e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  40. Following are the statements about prostomium of earthworm.

    (a) It serves as a covering for mouth.

    (b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it can crawl.

    (c) It is one of the sensory structures.

    (d) It is the first body segment.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

NEET UG 2020 question paper (official, booklet E1)

Full paper →
  1. Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option.

    Column - I: (a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia (c) Filariasis (d) Malaria

    Column - II: (i) Wuchereria (ii) Plasmodium (iii) Salmonella (iv) Haemophilus

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  2. In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  3. Choose the correct pair from the following :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  4. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

    Column - I: (a) Gregarious, polyphagous pest (b) Adult with radial symmetry and larva with bilateral symmetry (c) Book lungs (d) Bioluminescence

    Column - II: (i) Asterias (ii) Scorpion (iii) Ctenoplana (iv) Locusta

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  5. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  6. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  7. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  8. Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  9. The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoRI is :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  10. Identify the wrong statement with regard to Restriction Enzymes.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  11. Select the correct events that occur during inspiration.

    (a) Contraction of diaphragm

    (b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles

    (c) Pulmonary volume decreases

    (d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  12. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for few days because :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  13. Which of the following statements are true for the phylum-Chordata ?

    (a) In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail and it is present throughout their life.

    (b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during the embryonic period only.

    (c) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow.

    (d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla : Hemichordata, Tunicata and Cephalochordata.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  14. Match the organism with its use in biotechnology.

    (a) Bacillus thuringiensis (i) Cloning vector

    (b) Thermus aquaticus (ii) Construction of first rDNA molecule

    (c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (iii) DNA polymerase

    (d) Salmonella typhimurium (iv) Cry proteins

    Select the correct option from the following :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  15. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  16. Which of the following statements is not correct ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  17. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

    Column - I: (a) 6 - 15 pairs of gill slits (b) Heterocercal caudal fin (c) Air Bladder (d) Poison sting

    Column - II: (i) Trygon (ii) Cyclostomes (iii) Chondrichthyes (iv) Osteichthyes

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  18. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino acids by mixing the following in a closed flask :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  19. Embryological support for evolution was disapproved by :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  20. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  21. Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organisms which have evolved due to changes in environment brought about by anthropogenic action ?

    (a) Darwin's Finches of Galapagos islands.

    (b) Herbicide resistant weeds.

    (c) Drug resistant eukaryotes.

    (d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals like dogs.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  22. Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  23. By which method was a new breed 'Hisardale' of sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  24. Identify the correct statement with reference to human digestive system.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  25. Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  26. Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  27. Which of the following hormone levels will cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the graffian follicle ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  28. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

    Column - I | Column - II

    (a) Bt cotton | (i) Gene therapy

    (b) Adenosine deaminase deficiency | (ii) Cellular defence

    (c) RNAi | (iii) Detection of HIV infection

    (d) PCR | (iv) Bacillus thuringiensis

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  29. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  30. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

    Column - I | Column - II

    (a) Organ of Corti | (i) Connects middle ear and pharynx

    (b) Cochlea | (ii) Coiled part of the labyrinth

    (c) Eustachian tube | (iii) Attached to the oval window

    (d) Stapes | (iv) Located on the basilar membrane

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  31. Which of the following would help in prevention of diuresis ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  32. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

    Column - I | Column - II

    (a) Placenta | (i) Androgens

    (b) Zona pellucida | (ii) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)

    (c) Bulbo-urethral glands | (iii) Layer of the ovum

    (d) Leydig cells | (iv) Lubrication of the Penis

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  33. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  34. The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  35. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

    Column - I | Column - II

    (a) Eosinophils | (i) Immune response

    (b) Basophils | (ii) Phagocytosis

    (c) Neutrophils | (iii) Release histaminase, destructive enzymes

    (d) Lymphocytes | (iv) Release granules containing histamine

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  36. The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  37. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

    Column - I | Column - II

    (a) Pituitary gland | (i) Grave's disease

    (b) Thyroid gland | (ii) Diabetes mellitus

    (c) Adrenal gland | (iii) Diabetes insipidus

    (d) Pancreas | (iv) Addison's disease

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  38. Select the correct statement.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  39. Match the following columns and select the correct option.

    Column - I | Column - II

    (a) Floating Ribs | (i) Located between second and seventh ribs

    (b) Acromion | (ii) Head of the Humerus

    (c) Scapula | (iii) Clavicle

    (d) Glenoid cavity | (iv) Do not connect with the sternum

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  40. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  41. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

NEET UG 2019 question paper (official, booklet P1)

Full paper →
  1. Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation is very essential to impart immunity to the newborn infants because it contains :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  2. Match the following structures with their respective location in organs :

    (a) Crypts of Lieberkühn (i) Pancreas

    (b) Glisson's Capsule (ii) Duodenum

    (c) Islets of Langerhans (iii) Small intestine

    (d) Brunner's Glands (iv) Liver

    Select the correct option from the following :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  3. Which part of the brain is responsible for thermoregulation ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  4. Consider following features :

    (a) Organ system level of organisation

    (b) Bilateral symmetry

    (c) True coelomates with segmentation of body

    Select the correct option of animal groups which possess all the above characteristics.

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  5. Select the correct sequence of organs in the alimentary canal of cockroach starting from mouth :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  6. Which of the following muscular disorders is inherited ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  7. The ciliated epithelial cells are required to move particles or mucus in a specific direction. In humans, these cells are mainly present in :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  8. Match the Column - I with Column - II :

    Column - I | Column - II

    (a) P - wave | (i) Depolarisation of ventricles

    (b) QRS complex | (ii) Repolarisation of ventricles

    (c) T - wave | (iii) Coronary ischemia

    (d) Reduction in the size of T - wave | (iv) Depolarisation of atria

    | (v) Repolarisation of atria

    Select the correct option.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  9. In a species, the weight of newborn ranges from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive whereas 99% of the infants born with weights from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 to 5 kg die. Which type of selection process is taking place ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  10. How does steroid hormone influence the cellular activities ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  11. Which one of the following equipments is essentially required for growing microbes on a large scale, for industrial production of enzymes ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  12. Select the correct sequence for transport of sperm cells in male reproductive system.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  13. Match the hominids with their correct brain size :

    (a) *Homo habilis* (i) 900 cc

    (b) *Homo neanderthalensis* (ii) 1350 cc

    (c) *Homo erectus* (iii) 650 - 800 cc

    (d) *Homo sapiens* (iv) 1400 cc

    Select the correct option.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  14. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by Hugo de Vries, are :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  15. Due to increasing air-borne allergens and pollutants, many people in urban areas are suffering from respiratory disorder causing wheezing due to :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  16. DNA precipitation out of a mixture of biomolecules can be achieved by treatment with :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  17. Select the incorrect statement.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  18. What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 5 L, blood volume in the ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  19. Which of the following factors is responsible for the formation of concentrated urine ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  20. Which of the following contraceptive methods do involve a role of hormone ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  21. Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve Volume of an athlete is 500 mL and 1000 mL respectively. What will be his Expiratory Capacity if the Residual Volume is 1200 mL ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  22. Following statements describe the characteristics of the enzyme Restriction Endonuclease. Identify the incorrect statement.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  23. Drug called 'Heroin' is synthesized by :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  24. Select the hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine Devices.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  25. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then what will be the frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive individuals in the population ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  26. Which of the following is true for Golden rice ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  27. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is not completely curable ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  28. Match the following organisms with their respective characteristics :

    (a) \(\textit{Pila}\) (i) Flame cells

    (b) \(\textit{Bombyx}\) (ii) Comb plates

    (c) \(\textit{Pleurobrachia}\) (iii) Radula

    (d) \(\textit{Taenia}\) (iv) Malpighian tubules

    Select the correct option from the following :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  29. Which of the following glucose transporters is insulin-dependent ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  30. Which of the following immune responses is responsible for rejection of kidney graft ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  31. Use of an artificial kidney during hemodialysis may result in :

    (a) Nitrogenous waste build-up in the body

    (b) Non-elimination of excess potassium ions

    (c) Reduced absorption of calcium ions from gastro-intestinal tract

    (d) Reduced RBC production

    Which of the following options is the most appropriate ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  32. Which of the following statements is correct ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  33. Identify the cells whose secretion protects the lining of gastro-intestinal tract from various enzymes.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  34. Extrusion of second polar body from egg nucleus occurs :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  35. What triggers activation of protoxin to active Bt toxin of \(\textit{Bacillus thuringiensis}\) in boll worm ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  36. Identify the correct pair representing the causative agent of typhoid fever and the confirmatory test for typhoid.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  37. Match the following hormones with the respective disease :

    (a) Insulin (i) Addison's disease

    (b) Thyroxin (ii) Diabetes insipidus

    (c) Corticoids (iii) Acromegaly

    (d) Growth Hormone (iv) Goitre

    (v) Diabetes mellitus

    Select the correct option.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  38. Select the correct option.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

NEET UG 2018 question paper (official, booklet EE)

Full paper →
  1. Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  2. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  3. In India, the organisation responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified organisms for public use is

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  4. Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation from the concerned country and its people is called

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  5. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a foreign company, though such varieties have been present in India for a long time. This is related to

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  6. Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  7. Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  8. The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  9. Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  10. Among the following sets of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  11. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  12. In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  13. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  14. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug "Smack" ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  15. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  16. The contraceptive 'SAHELI'

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  17. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  18. The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  19. Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema, respectively ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  20. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

    Column I | Column II

    a. Tricuspid valve | i. Between left atrium and left ventricle

    b. Bicuspid valve | ii. Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery

    c. Semilunar valve | iii. Between right atrium and right ventricle

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  21. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

    Column I | Column II

    a. Tidal volume | i. 2500 – 3000 mL

    b. Inspiratory Reserve volume | ii. 1100 – 1200 mL

    c. Expiratory Reserve volume | iii. 500 – 550 mL

    d. Residual volume | iv. 1000 – 1100 mL

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  22. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

    Column I | Column II

    a. Glycosuria | i. Accumulation of uric acid in joints

    b. Gout | ii. Mass of crystallised salts within the kidney

    c. Renal calculi | iii. Inflammation in glomeruli

    d. Glomerular nephritis | iv. Presence of glucose in urine

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  23. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

    Column I (Function) | Column II (Part of Excretory System)

    a. Ultrafiltration | i. Henle's loop

    b. Concentration of urine | ii. Ureter

    c. Transport of urine | iii. Urinary bladder

    d. Storage of urine | iv. Malpighian corpuscle

    | v. Proximal convoluted tubule

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  24. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  25. Which of the following terms describe human dentition ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  26. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  27. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

    Column I | Column II

    a. Proliferative Phase | i. Breakdown of endometrial lining

    b. Secretory Phase | ii. Follicular Phase

    c. Menstruation | iii. Luteal Phase

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  28. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly help in erythropoiesis ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  29. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

    Column I | Column II

    a. Fibrinogen | i. Osmotic balance

    b. Globulin | ii. Blood clotting

    c. Albumin | iii. Defence mechanism

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  30. Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →