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NEET UG

2,056 solved questions 5 notes 85 tests

Every question from past board papers on NEET UG, newest paper first. Open any question for its full worked answer.

NEET UG 2025 question paper (official, booklet 45)

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  1. Consider a water tank shown in the figure. It has one wall at \(x = L\) and can be taken to be very wide in the \(z\) direction. When filled with a liquid of surface tension \(S\) and density \(\rho\), the liquid surface makes angle \(\theta_0(\theta_0 \ll 1)\) with the \(x\)-axis at \(x = L\). If \(y(x)\) is the height of the surface then the equation for \(y(x)\) is :

    (take \(\theta(x) = \sin\theta(x) = \tan\theta(x) = \frac{dy}{dx}\), \(g\) is the acceleration due to gravity)

    water tank wall at x=L, liquid surface curve y(x) making angle theta0 with x-axis at wall

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  2. A microscope has an objective of focal length 2 cm, eyepiece of focal length 4 cm and the tube length of 40 cm. If the distance of distinct vision of eye is 25 cm, the magnification in the microscope is

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  3. An electron (mass \(9\times10^{-31}\) kg and charge \(1.6\times10^{-19}\)C) moving with speed \(c/100\) (\(c\) = speed of light) is injected into a magnetic field \(\vec B\) of magnitude \(9\times10^{-4}\) T perpendicular to its direction of motion. We wish to apply an uniform electric field \(\vec E\) together with the magnetic field so that the electron does not deflect from its path. Then (speed of light \(c = 3\times10^{8}\) ms\(^{-1}\))

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  4. There are two inclined surfaces of equal length (\(L\)) and same angle of inclination \(45^\circ\) with the horizontal. One of them is rough and the other is perfectly smooth. A given body takes 2 times as much time to slide down on rough surface than on the smooth surface. The coefficient of kinetic friction (\(\mu_k\)) between the object and the rough surface is close to

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  5. The kinetic energies of two similar cars A and B are 100 J and 225 J respectively. On applying breaks, car A stops after 1000 m and car B stops after 1500 m. If \(F_A\) and \(F_B\) are the forces applied by the breaks on cars A and B, respectively, then the ratio \(F_A/F_B\) is

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  6. The current passing through the battery in the given circuit, is:

    circuit with resistors 5, 1.5, 2.5, 6, 5.5, 3, 1.5 ohm and battery 5V with internal 1/3 ohm; nodes A-F

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  7. A bob of heavy mass \(m\) is suspended by a light string of length \(l\). The bob is given a horizontal velocity \(v_0\) as shown in figure. If the string gets slack at some point \(P\) making an angle \(\theta\) from the horizontal, the ratio of the speed \(v\) of the bob at point \(P\) to its initial speed \(v_0\) is:

    circle with bob at bottom given v0, string slack at P at angle theta above horizontal through O

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  8. The output (Y) of the given logic implementation is similar to the output of an/a ________ gate.

    logic circuit: inputs A,B,A; OR-bubble gate (NOR) and NAND-type bubble gate feeding an AND gate giving Y

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  9. The electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by \(E_z = 60\cos(5x + 1.5\times10^9 t)\,V/m\). Then expression for the corresponding magnetic field is (here subscripts denote the direction of the field) :

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  10. A ball of mass 0.5 kg is dropped from a height of 40 m. The ball hits the ground and rises to a height of 10 m. The impulse imparted to the ball during its collision with the ground is (Take g = 9.8 m/s\(^2\))

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  11. AB is a part of an electrical circuit (see figure). The potential difference "\(V_A - V_B\)", at the instant when current i = 2 A and is increasing at a rate of 1 amp / second is:

    A to B: inductor 1 H, battery 5 V, resistor 2 ohm in series, current i from A

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  12. A 2 amp current is flowing through two different small circular copper coils having radii ratio 1:2. The ratio of their respective magnetic moments will be

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  13. In a certain camera, a combination of four similar thin convex lenses are arranged axially in contact. Then the power of the combination and the total magnification in comparison to the power (\(p\)) and magnification (\(m\)) for each lens will be, respectively -

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  14. An oxygen cylinder of volume 30 litre has 18.20 moles of oxygen. After some oxygen is withdrawn from the cylinder, its gauge pressure drops to 11 atmospheric pressure at temperature 27\(^\circ\)C. The mass of the oxygen withdrawn from the cylinder is nearly equal to :

    [Given, \(R = \frac{100}{12}\) J mol\(^{-1}\)K\(^{-1}\), and molecular mass of O\(_2\) = 32, 1 atm pressure = \(1.01\times10^5\) N/m]

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  15. In some appropriate units, time (\(t\)) and position (\(x\)) relation of a moving particle is given by \(t = x^2 + x\). The acceleration of the particle is

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  16. To an ac power supply of 220 V at 50 Hz, a resistor of 20 \(\Omega\), a capacitor of reactance 25 \(\Omega\) and an inductor of reactance 45 \(\Omega\) are connected in series. The corresponding current in the circuit and the phase angle between the current and the voltage is, respectively -

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  17. The Sun rotates around its centre once in 27 days. What will be the period of revolution if the Sun were to expand to twice its present radius without any external influence? Assume the Sun to be a sphere of uniform density.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  18. A model for quantized motion of an electron in a uniform magnetic field \(B\) states that the flux passing through the orbit of the electron is \(n(h/e)\) where \(n\) is an integer, \(h\) is Planck's constant and \(e\) is the magnitude of electron's charge. According to the model, the magnetic moment of an electron in its lowest energy state will be (\(m\) is the mass of the electron)

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  19. Three identical heat conducting rods are connected in series as shown in the figure. The rods on the sides have thermal conductivity \(2K\) while that in the middle has thermal conductivity \(K\). The left end of the combination is maintained at temperature \(3T\) and the right end at \(T\). The rods are thermally insulated from outside. In steady state, temperature at the left junction is \(T_1\) and that at the right junction is \(T_2\). The ratio \(T_1/T_2\) is

    three rods in series: 2K, K, 2K; left end 3T, right end T; junction temps T1, T2

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  20. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are separated by \(d\). Two slabs of different dielectric constant \(K_1\) and \(K_2\) with thickness \(\frac{3}{8}d\) and \(\frac{d}{2}\), respectively are inserted in the capacitor. Due to this, the capacitance becomes two times larger than when there is nothing between the plates. If \(K_1 = 1.25\,K_2\), the value of \(K_1\) is :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  21. Two cities X and Y are connected by a regular bus service with a bus leaving in either direction every T min. A girl is driving scooty with a speed of 60 km/h in the direction X to Y notices that a bus goes past her every 30 minutes in the direction of her motion, and every 10 minutes in the opposite direction. Choose the correct option for the period T of the bus service and the speed (assumed constant) of the buses.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  22. A uniform rod of mass 20 kg and length 5 m leans against a smooth vertical wall making an angle of \(60^\circ\) with it. The other end rests on a rough horizontal floor. The friction force that the floor exerts on the rod is (take g = 10 m/s\(^2\))

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  23. In an oscillating spring mass system, a spring is connected to a box filled with sand. As the box oscillates, sand leaks slowly out of the box vertically so that the average frequency \(\omega(t)\) and average amplitude \(A(t)\) of the system change with time \(t\). Which one of the following options schematically depicts these changes correctly?

    four options each with two graphs, omega(t) above and A(t) below vs t

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  24. A balloon is made of a material of surface tension \(S\) and its inflation outlet (from where gas is filled in it) has small area \(A\). It is filled with a gas of density \(\rho\) and takes a spherical shape of radius \(R\). When the gas is allowed to flow freely out of it, its radius \(r\) changes from \(R\) to 0 (zero) in time \(T\). If the speed \(v(r)\) of gas coming out of the balloon depends on \(r\) as \(r^a\) and \(T \propto S^{\alpha}A^{\beta}\rho^{\gamma}R^{\delta}\) then

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  25. Consider the diameter of a spherical object being measured with the help of a Vernier callipers. Suppose its 10 Vernier Scale Divisions (V.S.D.) are equal to its 9 Main Scale Divisions (M.S.D.). The least division in the M.S. is 0.1 cm and the zero of V.S. is at \(x = 0.1\) cm when the jaws of Vernier callipers are closed.

    If the main scale reading for the diameter is M = 5 cm and the number of coinciding vernier division is 8, the measured diameter after zero error correction, is

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  26. A parallel plate capacitor made of circular plates is being charged such that the surface charge density on its plates is increasing at a constant rate with time. The magnetic field arising due to displacement current is :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  27. An unpolarized light beam travelling in air is incident on a medium of refractive index 1.73 at Brewster's angle. Then-

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  28. Two identical charged conducting spheres A and B have their centres separated by a certain distance. Charge on each sphere is q and the force of repulsion between them is F. A third identical uncharged conducting sphere is brought in contact with sphere A first and then with B and finally removed from both. New force of repulsion between spheres A and B (Radii of A and B are negligible compared to the distance of separation so that for calculating force between them they can be considered as point charges) is best given as :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  29. A container has two chambers of volumes \(V_1 = 2\) litres and \(V_2 = 3\) litres separated by a partition made of a thermal insulator. The chambers contains \(n_1 = 5\) and \(n_2 = 4\) moles of ideal gas at pressures \(p_1 = 1\) atm and \(p_2 = 2\) atm, respectively. When the partition is removed, the mixture attains an equilibrium pressure of :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  30. A particle of mass \(m\) is moving around the origin with a constant force \(F\) pulling it towards the origin. If Bohr model is used to describe its motion, the radius \(r\) of the \(n^{th}\) orbit and the particle's speed \(v\) in the orbit depend on \(n\) as

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  31. The radius of Martian orbit around the Sun is about 4 times the radius of the orbit of Mercury. The Martian year is 687 Earth days. Then which of the following is the length of 1 year on Mercury ?

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  32. A body weighs 48 N on the surface of the earth. The gravitational force experienced by the body due to the earth at a height equal to one-third the radius of the earth from its surface is :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  33. A wire of resistance R is cut into 8 equal pieces. From these pieces two equivalent resistances are made by adding four of these together in parallel. Then these two sets are added in series. The net effective resistance of the combination is :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  34. De-Broglie wavelength of an electron orbiting in the \(n = 2\) state of hydrogen atom is close to (Given Bohr radius = 0.052 nm)

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  35. An electric dipole with dipole moment \(5\times10^{-6}\) Cm is aligned with the direction of a uniform electric field of magnitude \(4\times10^{5}\) N/C. The dipole is then rotated through an angle of \(60^\circ\) with respect to the electric field. The change in the potential energy of the dipole is :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  36. A constant voltage of 50 V is maintained between the points A and B of the circuit shown in the figure. The current through the branch CD of the circuit is :

    bridge circuit: 1 ohm and 2 ohm top (A-C-B), 3 ohm and 4 ohm bottom, wire CD between middle junctions, 50 V battery across A,B

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  37. A photon and an electron (mass \(m\)) have the same energy \(E\). The ratio \(\left(\lambda_{photon}/\lambda_{electron}\right)\) of their de Broglie wavelengths is: (\(c\) is the speed of light)

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  38. Which of the following options represent the variation of photoelectric current with property of light shown on the x-axis?

    A. Photoelectric current vs Intensity of light: straight line through origin rising

    B. Photoelectric current vs Intensity of light: horizontal constant line

    C. Photoelectric current vs Frequency of light: straight line through origin rising

    D. Photoelectric current vs Frequency of light: line starting from a positive intercept on the x-axis (threshold) and rising

    four graphs A-D of photoelectric current vs intensity (A,B) and vs frequency (C,D)

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  39. A sphere of radius \(R\) is cut from a larger solid sphere of radius \(2R\) as shown in the figure. The ratio of the moment of inertia of the smaller sphere to that of the rest part of the sphere about the Y-axis is :

    large sphere radius 2R centred on Y-axis with a sphere of radius R cut out on the right, touching the Y-axis (2R diameter marked)

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  40. A full wave rectifier circuit with diodes (\(D_1\)) and (\(D_2\)) is shown in the figure. If input supply voltage \(V_{in} = 220\sin(100\pi t)\) volt, then at \(t = 15\) msec

    full-wave rectifier: source V_in, centre-tapped transformer secondary, diodes D1 and D2, load R_L

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  41. Two gases \(A\) and \(B\) are filled at the same pressure in separate cylinders with movable pistons of radius \(r_A\) and \(r_B\), respectively. On supplying an equal amount of heat to both the systems reversibly under constant pressure, the pistons of gas \(A\) and \(B\) are displaced by 16 cm and 9 cm, respectively. If the change in their internal energy is the same, then the ratio \(r_A/r_B\) is equal to

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  42. A physical quantity \(P\) is related to four observations \(a\), \(b\), \(c\) and \(d\) as follows:

    \(P = a^3b^2 / c\sqrt{d}\)

    The percentage errors of measurement in \(a\), \(b\), \(c\) and \(d\) are 1%, 3%, 2%, and 4% respectively. The percentage error in the quantity \(P\) is

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  43. The intensity of transmitted light when a polaroid sheet, placed between two crossed polaroids at \(22.5^\circ\) from the polarization axis of one of the polaroid, is (\(I_0\) is the intensity of polarised light after passing through the first polaroid):

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  44. Two identical point masses P and Q, suspended from two separate massless springs of spring constants \(k_1\) and \(k_2\), respectively, oscillate vertically. If their maximum speeds are the same, the ratio (\(A_Q/A_P\)) of the amplitude \(A_Q\) of mass \(Q\) to the amplitude \(A_P\) of mass \(P\) is:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  45. A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental frequency \(f\) in air. The pipe is now dipped vertically in a water drum to half of its length. The fundamental frequency of the air column is now equal to :

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  46. The ratio of the wavelengths of the light absorbed by a Hydrogen atom when it undergoes \(n=2 \to n=3\) and \(n=4 \to n=6\) transitions, respectively, is

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  47. Which of the following statements are true?

    A. Unlike Ga that has a very high melting point, Cs has a very low melting point.

    B. On Pauling scale, the electronegativity values of N and Cl are not the same.

    C. Ar, \(\mathrm{K^+}\), \(\mathrm{Cl^-}\), \(\mathrm{Ca^{2+}}\), and \(\mathrm{S^{2-}}\) are all isoelectronic species.

    D. The correct order of the first ionization enthalpies of Na, Mg, Al, and Si is Si > Al > Mg > Na.

    E. The atomic radius of Cs is greater than that of Li and Rb.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  48. Match List I with List II

    List I (Ion): A. \(\mathrm{Co^{2+}}\) B. \(\mathrm{Mg^{2+}}\) C. \(\mathrm{Pb^{2+}}\) D. \(\mathrm{Al^{3+}}\)

    List II (Group Number in Cation Analysis): I. Group-I II. Group-III III. Group-IV IV. Group-VI

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  49. Predict the major product 'P' in the following sequence of reactions -

    (i) HBr, benzoyl peroxide; (ii) KCN; (iii) Na(Hg)/\(\mathrm{C_2H_5OH}\) -> P (Major), starting from 1-methylcyclopentene

    Reactant: cyclopentene ring with CH3 on a ring carbon; options are cyclopentane structures: (1) CH3 and CH2NH2 on adjacent ring carbons, (2) CH3 and CH2NH2 on the same carbon, (3) CH3 and CN on adjacent carbons, (4) CH3 and CN on same carbon

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  50. Energy and radius of first Bohr orbit of \(\mathrm{He^+}\) and \(\mathrm{Li^{2+}}\) are

    [Given \(R_H = 2.18\times10^{-18}\) J, \(a_0 = 52.9\) pm]

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  51. Which of the following are paramagnetic?

    A. \([\mathrm{NiCl_4}]^{2-}\) B. \(\mathrm{Ni(CO)_4}\) C. \([\mathrm{Ni(CN)_4}]^{2-}\) D. \([\mathrm{Ni(H_2O)_6}]^{2+}\) E. \(\mathrm{Ni(PPh_3)_4}\)

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  52. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : Like nitrogen that can form ammonia, arsenic can form arsine.

    Statement II : Antimony cannot form antimony pentoxide.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  53. Which among the following electronic configurations belong to main group elements?

    A. \([\mathrm{Ne}]3s^1\) B. \([\mathrm{Ar}]3d^3 4s^2\) C. \([\mathrm{Kr}]4d^{10}5s^2 5p^5\) D. \([\mathrm{Ar}]3d^{10}4s^1\) E. \([\mathrm{Rn}]5f^0 6d^2 7s^2\)

    Choose the correct answer from the option given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  54. Dalton's Atomic theory could not explain which of the following?

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  55. Consider the following compounds : \(\underline{\mathrm{K}}\mathrm{O_2}\), \(\mathrm{H_2}\underline{\mathrm{O}}_2\) and \(\mathrm{H_2}\underline{\mathrm{S}}\mathrm{O_4}\).

    The oxidation states of the underlined elements in them are, respectively,

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  56. If the half-life (\(t_{1/2}\)) for a first order reaction is 1 minute, then the time required for 99.9% completion of the reaction is closest to :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  57. The correct order of the wavelength of light absorbed by the following complexes is,

    A. \([\mathrm{Co(NH_3)_6}]^{3+}\) B. \([\mathrm{Co(CN)_6}]^{3-}\) C. \([\mathrm{Cu(H_2O)_4}]^{2+}\) D. \([\mathrm{Ti(H_2O)_6}]^{3+}\)

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  58. Which one of the following compounds can exist as cis-trans isomers?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  59. Phosphoric acid ionizes in three steps with ionization constant values \(K_{a_1}\), \(K_{a_2}\) and \(K_{a_3}\), respectively, while K is the overall ionization constant. Which of the following statements are true?

    A. \(\log K = \log K_{a_1} + \log K_{a_2} + \log K_{a_3}\)

    B. \(\mathrm{H_3PO_4}\) is a stronger acid than \(\mathrm{H_2PO_4^-}\) and \(\mathrm{HPO_4^{2-}}\).

    C. \(K_{a_1} > K_{a_2} > K_{a_3}\)

    D. \(K_{a_1} = \frac{K_{a_3}+K_{a_2}}{2}\)

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  60. Which one of the following reactions does NOT give benzene as the product ?

    Four reactions: sodium benzoate + sodalime/heat; n-hexane Mo2O3 773K 10-20 atm; ethyne red hot iron tube 873 K; benzenediazonium chloride + H2O warm

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  61. If the molar conductivity (\(\Lambda_m\)) of a 0.050 mol \(\mathrm{L^{-1}}\) solution of a monobasic weak acid is 90 S \(\mathrm{cm^2\,mol^{-1}}\), its extent (degree) of dissociation will be

    [Assume \(\Lambda^\circ_+ = 349.6\) S \(\mathrm{cm^2\,mol^{-1}}\) and \(\Lambda^\circ_- = 50.4\) S \(\mathrm{cm^2\,mol^{-1}}\).]

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  62. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : A hypothetical diatomic molecule with bond order zero is quite stable.

    Statement II : As bond order increases, the bond length increases.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  63. Out of the following complex compounds, which of the compound will be having the minimum conductance in solution?

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  64. Match List - I with List - II

    List-I: A. \(\mathrm{XeO_3}\) B. \(\mathrm{XeF_2}\) C. \(\mathrm{XeOF_4}\) D. \(\mathrm{XeF_6}\)

    List-II: I. \(sp^3d\); linear II. \(sp^3\); pyramidal III. \(sp^3d^3\); distorted octahedral IV. \(sp^3d^2\); square pyramidal

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

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  65. \(\mathrm{C(s) + 2H_2(g) \to CH_4(g)}\); \(\Delta H = -74.8\) kJ \(\mathrm{mol^{-1}}\)

    Which of the following diagrams gives an accurate representation of the above reaction? [R \(\to\) reactants; P \(\to\) products]

    Four energy vs reaction progress diagrams (1)-(4) with R, P, 74.8 kJ/mol arrow; options are the diagrams

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  66. Match List - I with List - II

    List-I (Example): A. Humidity B. Alloys C. Amalgams D. Smoke

    List-II (Type of Solution): I. Solid in solid II. Liquid in gas III. Solid in gas IV. Liquid in solid

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  67. The correct order of decreasing basic strength of the given amines is :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  68. Among the following, choose the ones with equal number of atoms.

    A. 212 g of \(\mathrm{Na_2CO_3}\) (s) [molar mass = 106 g]

    B. 248 g of \(\mathrm{Na_2O}\) (s) [molar mass = 62 g]

    C. 240 g of NaOH (s) [molar mass = 40 g]

    D. 12 g of \(\mathrm{H_2}\) (g) [molar mass = 2 g]

    E. 220 g of \(\mathrm{CO_2}\)(g) [molar mass = 44 g]

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  69. Match List I with List II.

    List I (Name of Vitamin): A. Vitamin \(\mathrm{B_{12}}\) B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin \(\mathrm{B_2}\) D. Vitamin \(\mathrm{B_6}\)

    List II (Deficiency disease): I. Cheilosis II. Convulsions III. Rickets IV. Pernicious anaemia

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  70. The correct order of decreasing acidity of the following aliphatic acids is :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  71. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : Ferromagnetism is considered as an extreme form of paramagnetism.

    Statement II : The number of unpaired electrons in a \(\mathrm{Cr^{2+}}\) ion (\(Z = 24\)) is the same as that of a \(\mathrm{Nd^{3+}}\) ion (\(Z = 60\)).

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  72. Match List I with List II

    List I (Mixture): A. \(\mathrm{CHCl_3}\) + \(\mathrm{C_6H_5NH_2}\) B. Crude oil in petroleum industry C. Glycerol from spent-lye D. Aniline - water

    List II (Method of Separation): I. Distillation under reduced pressure II. Steam distillation III. Fractional distillation IV. Simple distillation

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  73. For the reaction \(\mathrm{A(g) \rightleftharpoons 2B(g)}\), the backward reaction rate constant is higher than the forward reaction rate constant by a factor of 2500, at 1000 K.

    [Given : R = 0.0831 L atm \(\mathrm{mol^{-1}\,K^{-1}}\)]

    \(K_p\) for the reaction at 1000 K is

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  74. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : Benzenediazonium salt is prepared by the reaction of aniline with nitrous acid at 273 - 278 K. It decomposes easily in the dry state.

    Statement II : Insertion of iodine into the benzene ring is difficult and hence iodobenzene is prepared through the reaction of benzenediazonium salt with KI.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  75. How many products (including stereoisomers) are expected from monochlorination of the following compound?

    \((\mathrm{CH_3})_2\mathrm{CH-CH_2-CH_3}\)

    2-methylbutane drawn as (CH3)2CH-CH2-CH3

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  76. Among the given compounds I-III, the correct order of bond dissociation energy of C-H bond marked with * is :

    I: benzene with starred ring C-H; II: phenylacetylene with starred terminal alkyne C-H; III: cyclopropane with starred C-H. Options listed below structures

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  77. Which one of the following compounds does not decolourize bromine water?

    (1) cyclohexane ring; (2) phenol; (3) styrene; (4) aniline

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  78. The major product of the following reaction is :

    Reactant: Ph-CO-CH2CH2-CN; (i) \(\mathrm{CH_3MgBr}\) (excess); (ii) \(\mathrm{H_3O^+}\)

    Reactant PhCOCH2CH2CN with reagents, and four product structures: (1) Ph-C(CH3)(OH)-CH2CH2-CN; (2) Ph-C(CH3)(OH)-CH2CH2-C(=O)CH3; (3) Ph-C(CH3)(OH)-CH2CH2-C(CH3)2OH; (4) PhCO-CH2CH2-C(=O)CH3

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  79. Which of the following aqueous solution will exhibit highest boiling point?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  80. Match List - I with List - II

    List-I: A. Haber process B. Wacker oxidation C. Wilkinson catalyst D. Ziegler catalyst

    List-II: I. Fe catalyst II. \(\mathrm{PdCl_2}\) III. \([(\mathrm{PPh_3})_3\mathrm{RhCl}]\) IV. \(\mathrm{TiCl_4}\) with \(\mathrm{Al(CH_3)_3}\)

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  81. 5 moles of liquid X and 10 moles of liquid Y make a solution having a vapour pressure of 70 torr. The vapour pressures of pure X and Y are 63 torr and 78 torr respectively. Which of the following is true regarding the described solution?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  82. Sugar 'X'

    A. is found in honey.

    B. is a keto sugar.

    C. exists in \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) - anomeric forms.

    D. is laevorotatory.

    'X' is :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  83. Identify the suitable reagent for the following conversion.

    Methyl benzoate (Ph-COOCH3) \(\to\) benzaldehyde (Ph-CHO)

    Methyl benzoate to benzaldehyde conversion

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  84. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

    Assertion (A) : (primary alkyl iodide drawn as zig-zag chain ending in I) undergoes \(S_N2\) reaction faster than (the corresponding alkyl chloride, zig-zag chain ending in Cl).

    Reason (R) : Iodine is a better leaving group because of its large size.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    Two skeletal alkyl halides (zig-zag chain with I, and with Cl) in the assertion

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  85. The standard heat of formation, in kcal/mol of \(\mathrm{Ba^{2+}}\) is :

    [Given : standard heat of formation of \(\mathrm{SO_4^{2-}}\) ion (aq) = \(-216\) kcal/mol, standard heat of crystallisation of \(\mathrm{BaSO_4}\)(s) = \(-4.5\) kcal/mol, standard heat of formation of \(\mathrm{BaSO_4}\)(s) = \(-349\) kcal/mol]

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  86. Total number of possible isomers (both structural as well as stereoisomers) of cyclic ethers of molecular formula \(\mathrm{C_4H_8O}\) is :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  87. Identify the correct orders against the property mentioned :

    A. \(\mathrm{H_2O > NH_3 > CHCl_3}\) - dipole moment

    B. \(\mathrm{XeF_4 > XeO_3 > XeF_2}\) - number of lone pairs on central atom

    C. O-H > C-H > N-O - bond length

    D. \(\mathrm{N_2 > O_2 > H_2}\) - bond enthalpy

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  88. Higher yield of NO in \(\mathrm{N_2(g) + O_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2NO(g)}\) can be obtained at

    [\(\Delta H\) of the reaction = + 180.7 kJ \(\mathrm{mol^{-1}}\)]

    A. higher temperature

    B. lower temperature

    C. higher concentration of \(\mathrm{N_2}\)

    D. higher concentration of \(\mathrm{O_2}\)

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  89. If the rate constant of a reaction is 0.03 \(\mathrm{s^{-1}}\), how much time does it take for 7.2 mol \(\mathrm{L^{-1}}\) concentration of the reactant to get reduced to 0.9 mol \(\mathrm{L^{-1}}\)?

    (Given: log 2 = 0.301)

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  90. Which one of the following reactions does NOT belong to "Lassaigne's test"?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  91. The complex II of mitochondrial electron transport chain is also known as

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  92. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  93. What are the potential drawbacks in adoption of the IVF method?

    A. High fatality risk to mother

    B. Expensive instruments and reagents

    C. Husband/wife necessary for being donors

    D. Less adoption of orphans

    E. Not available in India

    F. Possibility that the early embryo does not survive

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  94. What is the name of the blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart in a frog ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  95. Which one of the following statements refers to Reductionist Biology?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  96. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : In the RNA world, RNA is considered the first genetic material evolved to carry out essential life processes. RNA acts as a genetic material and also as a catalyst for some important biochemical reactions in living systems. Being reactive, RNA is unstable.

    Statement II : DNA evolved from RNA and is a more stable genetic material. Its double helical strands being complementary, resist changes by evolving repairing mechanism.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  97. Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch is an example of which of the following?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  98. From the statements given below choose the correct option :

    A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.

    B. Each ribosome has two sub-units.

    C. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 40S while that of 70S are 50S and 30S.

    D. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 20S and that of 70S are 50S and 20S.

    E. The two sub-units of 80S are 60S and 30S and that of 70S are 50S and 30S.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  99. Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  100. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy.

    Statement II : The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP).

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  101. Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I: A. Emphysema; B. Angina Pectoris; C. Glomerulonephritis; D. Tetany

    List - II: I. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca++ in body fluid; II. Damaged alveolar walls and decreased respiratory surface; III. Acute chest pain when not enough oxygen is reaching to heart muscle; IV. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  102. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

    Assertion (A) : Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce nectar.

    Reason (R) : The flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grains in wind and water pollinated flowers.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  103. Which of the following is an example of non-distilled alcoholic beverage produced by yeast?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  104. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : In a floral formula ⊕ stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower, and G (underlined) stands for inferior ovary.

    Statement II : In a floral formula ⊕ stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower and G (underlined) stands for superior ovary.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  105. Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus is used for

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  106. Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  107. Which of the following statement is correct about location of the male frog copulatory pad ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  108. Which one of the following phytohormones promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in the delay of leaf senescence in plants?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  109. While trying to find out the characteristic of a newly found animal, a researcher did the histology of adult animal and observed a cavity with presence of mesodermal tissue towards the body wall but no mesodermal tissue was observed towards the alimentary canal. What could be the possible coelome of that animal ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  110. Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I: A. Head; B. Middle piece; C. Acrosome; D. Tail

    List - II: I. Enzymes; II. Sperm motility; III. Energy; IV. Genetic material

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  111. Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the correct sequence.

    A. Prothallus stage

    B. Meiosis in spore mother cells

    C. Fertilisation

    D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in gametophyte.

    E. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in presence of water.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  112. Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by :

    A. Nodal tissue

    B. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata

    C. Adrenal medullary hormones

    D. Adrenal cortical hormones

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  113. Which of following organisms cannot fix nitrogen?

    A. Azotobacter

    B. Oscillatoria

    C. Anabaena

    D. Volvox

    E. Nostoc

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  114. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : Transfer RNAs and ribosomal RNA do not interact with mRNA.

    Statement II : RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  115. In the above represented plasmid an alien piece of DNA is inserted at EcoRI site. Which of the following strategies will be chosen to select the recombinant colonies?

    Plasmid map with BamHI, Tet R, Ori, EcoRI, beta-Galactosidase, amp

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  116. Which of the following genetically engineered organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human insulin?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  117. Name the class of enzyme that usually catalyze the following reaction :

    S – G + S# → S + S# – G

    Where, G → a group other than hydrogen

    S → a substrate

    S# → another substrate

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  118. Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard to the structure of monocot stem.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  119. The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is

    A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg.

    B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum.

    C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores.

    D. Formation of sporophyte.

    E. Release of antherozoids into water.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  120. Which are correct:

    A. Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging detect cancers of internal organs.

    B. Chemotherapeutics drugs are used to kill non-cancerous cells.

    C. α-interferon activate the cancer patients' immune system and helps in destroying the tumour.

    D. Chemotherapeutic drugs are biological response modifiers.

    E. In the case of leukaemia blood cell counts are decreased.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  121. Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I: A. Centromere; B. Cilium; C. Cristae; D. Cell membrane

    List - II: I. Mitochondrion; II. Cell division; III. Cell movement; IV. Phospholipid Bilayer

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  122. Match List I with List II :

    List I: A. Chlorophyll a; B. Chlorophyll b; C. Xanthophylls; D. Carotenoids

    List II: I. Yellow-green; II. Yellow; III. Blue-green; IV. Yellow to Yellow-orange

    Choose the option with all correct matches.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  123. Find the correct statements :

    A. In human pregnancy, the major organ systems are formed at the end of 12 weeks.

    B. In human pregnancy the major organ systems are formed at the end of 8 weeks.

    C. In human pregnancy heart is formed after one month of gestation.

    D. In human pregnancy, limbs and digits develop by the end of second month.

    E. In human pregnancy the appearance of hair is usually observed in the fifth month.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  124. In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a protein-rich layer called :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  125. Which of the following diagrams is correct with regard to the proximal (P) and distal (D) tubule of the Nephron.

    Four nephron proximal/distal tubule diagrams (the answer options) showing ion transport arrows

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  126. Identify the part of a bio-reactor which is used as a foam braker from the given figure.

    Stirred-tank bioreactor with parts labelled A, B, C, D

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  127. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

    Assertion (A) : A typical unfertilised, angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is 8 nucleate and 7-celled.

    Reason (R) : The egg apparatus has 2 polar nuclei.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  128. A specialised membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication and respiration is :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  129. Which of the following are the post-transcriptional events in an eukaryotic cell?

    A. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to splicing.

    B. Removal of introns and joining of exons.

    C. Addition of methyl group at 5' end of hnRNA.

    D. Addition of adenine residues at 3' end of hnRNA.

    E. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  130. What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  131. Which one of the following enzymes contains 'Haem' as the prosthetic group?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  132. Each of the following characteristics represent a Kingdom proposed by Whittaker. Arrange the following in increasing order of complexity of body organization.

    A. Multicellular heterotrophs with cell wall made of chitin.

    B. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ system level of body organization.

    C. Prokaryotes with cell wall made of polysaccharides and amino acids.

    D. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level of body organization.

    E. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  133. Who is known as the father of Ecology in India?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  134. Match List I with List II :

    List-I: A. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase; B. Euchromatin; C. Frederick Griffith; D. Heterochromatin

    List-II: I. Streptococcus pneumoniae; II. Densely packed and dark-stained; III. Loosely packed and light-stained; IV. DNA as genetic material confirmation

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  135. Neoplastic characteristics of cells refer to :

    A. A mass of proliferating cell

    B. Rapid growth of cells

    C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue

    D. Those confined to original location

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  136. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : The DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used in construction of recombinant DNA.

    Statement II : Smaller size DNA fragments are observed near anode while larger fragments are found near the wells in an agarose gel.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  137. Match List I with List II.

    List I: A. Adenosine B. Adenylic acid C. Adenine D. Alanine

    List II: I. Nitrogen base II. Nucleotide III. Nucleoside IV. Amino acid

    Choose the option with all correct matches.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  138. Consider the following :

    A. The reductive division for the human female gametogenesis starts earlier than that of the male gametogenesis.

    B. The gap between the first meiotic division and the second meiotic division is much shorter for males compared to females.

    C. The first polar body is associated with the formation of the primary oocyte.

    D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to disintegration of the endometrium and onset of menstrual bleeding.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  139. All living members of the class Cyclostomata are:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  140. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

    Assertion (A) : The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package the materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell.

    Reason (R) : Vesicles containing materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  141. Match List I with List II :

    List I: A. Scutellum B. Non-albuminous seed C. Epiblast D. Perisperm

    List II: I. Persistent nucellus II. Cotyledon of Monocot seed III. Groundnut IV. Rudimentary cotyledon

    Choose the option with all correct matches.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  142. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

    Assertion (A) : All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrate.

    Reason (R) : The members of subphylum vertebrata possess notochord during the embryonic period, the notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  143. Identify the statement that is NOT correct.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  144. Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via RNAi because of -

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  145. Genes R and Y follow independent assortment. If RRYY produce round yellow seeds and rryy produce wrinkled green seeds, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  146. Histones are enriched with -

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  147. The first menstruation is called :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  148. Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I: A. Heart B. Kidney C. Gastro-intestinal tract D. Adrenal Cortex

    List - II: I. Erythropoietin II. Aldosterone III. Atrial natriuretic factor IV. Secretin

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  149. The protein portion of an enzyme is called :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  150. Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an Ecosystem?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  151. Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of evolution. Select the correct combination of terms to explain the evolution.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  152. With the help of given pedigree, find out the probability for the birth of a child having no disease and being a carrier (has the disease mutation in one allele of the gene) in F3 generation.

    Pedigree chart F0-F3 with symbols: unaffected male, affected male, carrier female, unaffected female, affected female; F3 individuals marked with ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  153. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

    Assertion (A) : Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus.

    Reason (R) : Presence of more than one nucleus in the tapetum increases the efficiency of nourishing the developing microspore mother cells.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  154. How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to occur for the development of a mature female gametophyte from the megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm plant?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  155. Which of the following is an example of a zygomorphic flower?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  156. After maturation, in primary lymphoid organs, the lymphocytes migrate for interaction with antigens to secondary lymphoid organ(s) / tissue(s) like:

    A. thymus B. bone marrow C. spleen D. lymph nodes E. Peyer's patches

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  157. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it has enclosed fig wasps in it.

    Statement II : Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit mutual relationship as fig wasp completes its life cycle in fig fruit and fig fruit gets pollinated by fig wasp.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  158. What is the main function of the spindle fibers during mitosis ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  159. Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperms?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  160. Consider the following statements regarding function of adrenal medullary hormones :

    A. It causes pupilary constriction

    B. It is a hyperglycemic hormone

    C. It causes piloerection

    D. It increases strength of heart contraction

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  161. Why can't insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  162. Match List I with List II.

    List I: A. Pteridophyte B. Bryophyte C. Angiosperm D. Gymnosperm

    List II: I. Salvia II. Ginkgo III. Polytrichum IV. Salvinia

    Choose the option with all correct matches.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  163. Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be made up of three nucleotides?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  164. Match List I with List II :

    List I: A. The Evil Quartet B. Ex situ conservation C. Lantana camara D. Dodo

    List II: I. Cryopreservation II. Alien species invasion III. Causes of biodiversity losses IV. Extinction

    Choose the correct matches.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  165. Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the hypothalamus ?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  166. Role of the water vascular system in Echinoderms is :

    A. Respiration and Locomotion

    B. Excretion and Locomotion

    C. Capture and transport of food

    D. Digestion and Respiration

    E. Digestion and Excretion

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  167. Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is a non-specific type of defence in the human body?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  168. In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of the following?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  169. In frog, the Renal portal system is a special venous connection that acts to link :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  170. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : In ecosystem, there is unidirectional flow of energy of sun from producers to consumers.

    Statement II : Ecosystems are exempted from 2nd law of thermodynamics.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  171. Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  172. Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning?

    A. Restriction enzymes

    B. DNA ligase

    C. DNA mutase

    D. DNA recombinase

    E. DNA polymerase

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  173. Read the following statements on plant growth and development.

    A. Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins.

    B. Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well as inhibition of growth.

    C. Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for re-differentiation.

    D. Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter.

    E. Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds.

    Choose the option with all correct statements.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  174. Which factor is important for termination of transcription?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  175. Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs. Choose the correct answer from the following :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  176. Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the following must be true?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  177. Which of the following microbes is NOT involved in the preparation of household products?

    A. Aspergillus niger

    B. Lactobacillus

    C. Trichoderma polysporum

    D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae

    E. Propionibacterium sharmanii

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  178. Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I: A. Progesterone B. Relaxin C. Melanocyte stimulating hormone D. Catecholamines

    List - II: I. Pars intermedia II. Ovary III. Adrenal Medulla IV. Corpus luteum

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  179. The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from non-recombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce colour in presence of a chromogenic substrate.

    Given below are two statements about this method:

    Statement I : The blue coloured colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid and they are identified as recombinant colonies.

    Statement II : The colonies without blue colour have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as recombinant colonies.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  180. Which one of the following equations represents the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of population?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

NEET UG 2024 question paper (official, booklet S6)

Full paper →
  1. Match List I with List II.

    List I (Spectral Lines of Hydrogen for transitions from): A. \(n_2=3\) to \(n_1=2\); B. \(n_2=4\) to \(n_1=2\); C. \(n_2=5\) to \(n_1=2\); D. \(n_2=6\) to \(n_1=2\)

    List II (Wavelengths (nm)): I. 410.2; II. 434.1; III. 656.3; IV. 486.1

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  2. Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I (Material): A. Diamagnetic; B. Ferromagnetic; C. Paramagnetic; D. Non-magnetic

    List-II (Susceptibility (\(\chi\))): I. \(\chi=0\); II. \(0>\chi\ge-1\); III. \(\chi\gg1\); IV. \(0<\chi<\epsilon\) (a small positive number)

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  3. In a uniform magnetic field of 0.049 T, a magnetic needle performs 20 complete oscillations in 5 seconds as shown. The moment of inertia of the needle is \(9.8\times10^{-6}\) kg m\(^2\). If the magnitude of magnetic moment of the needle is \(x\times10^{-5}\) Am\(^2\); then the value of 'x' is :

    magnetic needle suspended in field B

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  4. An unpolarised light beam strikes a glass surface at Brewster's angle. Then

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  5. Consider the following statements A and B and identify the correct answer :

    A. For a solar-cell, the I-V characteristics lies in the IV quadrant of the given graph.

    B. In a reverse biased \(pn\) junction diode, the current measured in (\(\mu A\)), is due to majority charge carriers.

    I-V axes with quadrants I-IV

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  6. A light ray enters through a right angled prism at point \(P\) with the angle of incidence \(30^\circ\) as shown in figure. It travels through the prism parallel to its base \(BC\) and emerges along the face \(AC\). The refractive index of the prism is:

    right-angled prism ABC with ray at P

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  7. A particle moving with uniform speed in a circular path maintains :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  8. The graph which shows the variation of \(\left(\frac{1}{\lambda^2}\right)\) and its kinetic energy, \(E\) is (where \(\lambda\) is de Broglie wavelength of a free particle) :

    four graphs of 1/lambda^2 vs E (options)

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  9. A wire of length 'l' and resistance 100 \(\Omega\) is divided into 10 equal parts. The first 5 parts are connected in series while the next 5 parts are connected in parallel. The two combinations are again connected in series. The resistance of this final combination is:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  10. The moment of inertia of a thin rod about an axis passing through its mid point and perpendicular to the rod is 2400 g cm\(^2\). The length of the 400 g rod is nearly :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  11. The output (\(Y\)) of the given logic gate is similar to the output of an/a :

    logic circuit with NAND and NOR feeding an OR-type gate

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  12. In a vernier calipers, \((N+1)\) divisions of vernier scale coincide with \(N\) divisions of main scale. If 1 MSD represents 0.1 mm, the vernier constant (in cm) is :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  13. At any instant of time \(t\), the displacement of any particle is given by \(2t-1\) (SI unit) under the influence of force of 5N. The value of instantaneous power is (in SI unit):

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  14. A thin spherical shell is charged by some source. The potential difference between the two points \(C\) and \(P\) (in \(V\)) shown in the figure is:

    (Take \(\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}=9\times10^9\) SI units)

    charged spherical shell, R=3 cm, q=1 microC, centre C and surface point P

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  15. A thin flat circular disc of radius 4.5 cm is placed gently over the surface of water. If surface tension of water is 0.07 Nm\(^{-1}\), then the excess force required to take it away from the surface is :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  16. A logic circuit provides the output \(Y\) as per the following truth table :

    | A | B | Y |

    |---|---|---|

    | 0 | 0 | 1 |

    | 0 | 1 | 0 |

    | 1 | 0 | 1 |

    | 1 | 1 | 0 |

    The expression for the output \(Y\) is :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  17. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

    Assertion A : The potential (\(V\)) at any axial point, at 2 m distance(\(r\)) from the centre of the dipole of dipole moment vector \(\vec{P}\) of magnitude, \(4\times10^{-6}\) C m, is \(\pm9\times10^3\) V.

    (Take \(\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}=9\times10^9\) SI units)

    Reason R : \(V=\pm\frac{2P}{4\pi\epsilon_0 r^2}\), where \(r\) is the distance of any axial point, situated at 2 m from the centre of the dipole.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  18. The terminal voltage of the battery, whose emf is 10 \(V\) and internal resistance 1 \(\Omega\), when connected through an external resistance of 4 \(\Omega\) as shown in the figure is :

    circuit: 4 ohm external resistor with 10 V battery and 1 ohm internal resistance

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  19. In the above diagram, a strong bar magnet is moving towards solenoid-2 from solenoid-1. The direction of induced current in solenoid-1 and that in solenoid-2, respectively, are through the directions:

    bar magnet N-S moving from solenoid-1 (A,B) to solenoid-2 (C,D)

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  20. In an ideal transformer, the turns ratio is \(\frac{N_p}{N_s}=\frac{1}{2}\). The ratio \(V_s : V_p\) is equal to (the symbols carry their usual meaning) :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  21. A tightly wound 100 turns coil of radius 10 cm carries a current of 7 A. The magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre of the coil is (Take permeability of free space as \(4\pi\times10^{-7}\) SI units):

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  22. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : Atoms are electrically neutral as they contain equal number of positive and negative charges.

    Statement II : Atoms of each element are stable and emit their characteristic spectrum.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  23. The quantities which have the same dimensions as those of solid angle are :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  24. If \(c\) is the velocity of light in free space, the correct statements about photon among the following are :

    A. The energy of a photon is \(E=h\nu\).

    B. The velocity of a photon is \(c\).

    C. The momentum of a photon, \(p=\frac{h\nu}{c}\).

    D. In a photon-electron collision, both total energy and total momentum are conserved.

    E. Photon possesses positive charge.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  25. A bob is whirled in a horizontal plane by means of a string with an initial speed of \(\omega\) rpm. The tension in the string is \(T\). If speed becomes \(2\omega\) while keeping the same radius, the tension in the string becomes :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  26. If \(x=5\sin\left(\pi t+\frac{\pi}{3}\right)m\) represents the motion of a particle executing simple harmonic motion, the amplitude and time period of motion, respectively, are :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  27. A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle \(abcda\). The work done by the gas along the path \(bc\) is :

    P-V diagram of cycle abcda, 100/300 kPa, 100/400 cm^3

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  28. \({}^{290}_{82}X \xrightarrow{\alpha} Y \xrightarrow{e^+} Z \xrightarrow{\beta^-} P \xrightarrow{e^-} Q\)

    In the nuclear emission stated above, the mass number and atomic number of the product \(Q\) respectively, are :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  29. Two bodies A and B of same mass undergo completely inelastic one dimensional collision. The body A moves with velocity \(v_1\) while body B is at rest before collision. The velocity of the system after collision is \(v_2\). The ratio \(v_1 : v_2\) is :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  30. In the following circuit, the equivalent capacitance between terminal \(A\) and terminal \(B\) is :

    capacitor network of five 2 microF capacitors between A and B

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  31. A horizontal force 10 \(N\) is applied to a block \(A\) as shown in figure. The mass of blocks \(A\) and \(B\) are 2 kg and 3 kg, respectively. The blocks slide over a frictionless surface. The force exerted by block \(A\) on block \(B\) is :

    blocks A (2 kg) and B (3 kg) pushed by F=10 N

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  32. A wheel of a bullock cart is rolling on a level road as shown in the figure below. If its linear speed is \(v\) in the direction shown, which one of the following options is correct (\(P\) and \(Q\) are any highest and lowest points on the wheel, respectively)?

    rolling wheel with top point P and bottom point Q, velocity v

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  33. The mass of a planet is \(\frac{1}{10}\)th that of the earth and its diameter is half that of the earth. The acceleration due to gravity on that planet is :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  34. The maximum elongation of a steel wire of 1 m length if the elastic limit of steel and its Young's modulus, respectively, are \(8\times10^8\) N m\(^{-2}\) and \(2\times10^{11}\) N m\(^{-2}\), is :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  35. If the monochromatic source in Young's double slit experiment is replaced by white light, then

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  36. A small telescope has an objective of focal length 140 cm and an eye piece of focal length 5.0 cm. The magnifying power of telescope for viewing a distant object is:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  37. If the plates of a parallel plate capacitor connected to a battery are moved close to each other, then

    A. the charge stored in it, increases.

    B. the energy stored in it, decreases.

    C. its capacitance increases.

    D. the ratio of charge to its potential remains the same.

    E. the product of charge and voltage increases.

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  38. A 10 \(\mu F\) capacitor is connected to a 210 V, 50 Hz source as shown in figure. The peak current in the circuit is nearly (\(\pi=3.14\)):

    capacitor C=10 microF connected to 210 V, 50 Hz AC source

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  39. Choose the correct circuit which can achieve the bridge balance.

    four Wheatstone bridge circuits (options)

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  40. Two heaters A and B have power rating of 1 kW and 2 kW, respectively. Those two are first connected in series and then in parallel to a fixed power source. The ratio of power outputs for these two cases is:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  41. The velocity (\(v\)) - time (\(t\)) plot of the motion of a body is shown below :

    The acceleration (\(a\)) - time (\(t\)) graph that best suits this motion is :

    v-t trapezoid graph and four a-t graph options

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  42. If the mass of the bob in a simple pendulum is increased to thrice its original mass and its length is made half its original length, then the new time period of oscillation is \(\frac{x}{2}\) times its original time period. Then the value of \(x\) is:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  43. A metallic bar of Young's modulus, \(0.5\times10^{11}\) N m\(^{-2}\) and coefficient of linear thermal expansion \(10^{-5}\,{}^\circ\)C\(^{-1}\), length 1 m and area of cross-section \(10^{-3}\) m\(^2\) is heated from \(0^\circ\)C to \(100^\circ\)C without expansion or bending. The compressive force developed in it is:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  44. A sheet is placed on a horizontal surface in front of a strong magnetic pole. A force is needed to :

    A. hold the sheet there if it is magnetic.

    B. hold the sheet there if it is non-magnetic.

    C. move the sheet away from the pole with uniform velocity if it is conducting.

    D. move the sheet away from the pole with uniform velocity if it is both, non-conducting and non-polar.

    Choose the correct statement(s) from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  45. The property which is not of an electromagnetic wave travelling in free space is that :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  46. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by connecting it to a battery through a resistor. If I is the current in the circuit, then in the gap between the plates :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  47. An iron bar of length L has magnetic moment M. It is bent at the middle of its length such that the two arms make an angle \(60^\circ\) with each other. The magnetic moment of this new magnet is:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  48. The minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass \(m\) from the surface of earth of mass \(M\) and radius \(R\) in a circular orbit at an altitude of \(2R\) from the surface of the earth is:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  49. The following graph represents the T-V curves of an ideal gas (where T is the temperature and V the volume) at three pressures \(P_1\), \(P_2\) and \(P_3\) compared with those of Charles's law represented as dotted lines.

    Then the correct relation is:

    T-V curves for P1, P2, P3 with dotted Charles's law lines

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  50. A force defined by \(F=\alpha t^2+\beta t\) acts on a particle at a given time \(t\). The factor which is dimensionless, if \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) are constants, is:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  51. Given below are two statements:

    Statement I : Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction.

    Statement II : Aniline cannot be prepared through Gabriel synthesis.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  52. Match List I with List II.

    List I (Compound): A. \(NH_3\) B. \(BrF_5\) C. \(XeF_4\) D. \(SF_6\)

    List II (Shape/geometry): I. Trigonal Pyramidal II. Square Planar III. Octahedral IV. Square Pyramidal

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  53. Match List I with List II.

    List I (Molecule): A. ethane B. ethene C. carbon molecule, \(C_2\) D. ethyne

    List II (Number and types of bond/s between two carbon atoms): I. one \(\sigma\)-bond and two \(\pi\)-bonds II. two \(\pi\)-bonds III. one \(\sigma\)-bond IV. one \(\sigma\)-bond and one \(\pi\)-bond

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  54. For the reaction \(2A \rightleftharpoons B + C\), \(K_c = 4\times10^{-3}\). At a given time, the composition of reaction mixture is : \([A]=[B]=[C]=2\times10^{-3}\) M.

    Then, which of the following is correct?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  55. Match List I with List II.

    List I (Process): A. Isothermal process B. Isochoric process C. Isobaric process D. Adiabatic process

    List II (Conditions): I. No heat exchange II. Carried out at constant temperature III. Carried out at constant volume IV. Carried out at constant pressure

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  56. Match List I with List II.

    List I (Quantum Number): A. \(m_l\) B. \(m_s\) C. \(l\) D. \(n\)

    List II (Information provided): I. shape of orbital II. size of orbital III. orientation of orbital IV. orientation of spin of electron

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  57. Arrange the following elements in increasing order of first ionization enthalpy:

    Li, Be, B, C, N

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  58. Among Group 16 elements, which one does NOT show \(-2\) oxidation state?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  59. In which of the following equilibria, \(K_p\) and \(K_c\) are NOT equal?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  60. The reagents with which glucose does not react to give the corresponding tests/products are

    A. Tollen's reagent B. Schiff's reagent C. HCN D. \(NH_2OH\) E. \(NaHSO_3\)

    Choose the correct options from the given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  61. Identify the correct reagents that would bring about the following transformation.

    [structure transformation shown in figure: ring-CH\(_2\)-CH=CH\(_2\) \(\rightarrow\) ring-CH\(_2\)-CH\(_2\)-CHO]

    reaction scheme: ring-CH2-CH=CH2 to ring-CH2-CH2-CHO

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  62. The \(E^\circ\) value for the \(Mn^{3+}/Mn^{2+}\) couple is more positive than that of \(Cr^{3+}/Cr^{2+}\) or \(Fe^{3+}/Fe^{2+}\) due to change of

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  63. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : Both \([Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}\) and \([CoF_6]^{3-}\) complexes are octahedral but differ in their magnetic behaviour.

    Statement II : \([Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}\) is diamagnetic whereas \([CoF_6]^{3-}\) is paramagnetic.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  64. Fehling's solution 'A' is

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  65. In which of the following processes entropy increases?

    A. A liquid evaporates to vapour.

    B. Temperature of a crystalline solid lowered from 130 K to 0 K.

    C. \(2NaHCO_{3(s)} \rightarrow Na_2CO_{3(s)} + CO_{2(g)} + H_2O_{(g)}\)

    D. \(Cl_{2(g)} \rightarrow 2Cl_{(g)}\)

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  66. The energy of an electron in the ground state (n = 1) for \(He^+\) ion is \(-x\) J, then that for an electron in n = 2 state for \(Be^{3+}\) ion in J is :

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  67. Match List I with List II.

    List I (Reactions): A. [structure: bicyclohexylidene \(\rightarrow\) 2 cyclohexanone] B. [structure: benzene \(\rightarrow\) benzophenone] C. [structure: cyclohexanol \(\rightarrow\) cyclohexanone] D. [structure: ethylbenzene \(\rightarrow\) potassium benzoate]

    List II (Reagents/Condition): I. benzoyl chloride / Anhyd. \(AlCl_3\) II. \(CrO_3\) III. \(KMnO_4\)/KOH, \(\Delta\) IV. (i) \(O_3\) (ii) \(Zn\)-\(H_2O\)

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    List I reaction structures and List II reagents

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  68. Activation energy of any chemical reaction can be calculated if one knows the value of

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  69. The most stable carbocation among the following is:

    four carbocation structures (options 1-4)

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  70. Given below are two statements:

    Statement I : The boiling point of three isomeric pentanes follows the order

    n-pentane > isopentane > neopentane

    Statement II : When branching increases, the molecule attains a shape of sphere. This results in smaller surface area for contact, due to which the intermolecular forces between the spherical molecules are weak, thereby lowering the boiling point.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  71. Which one of the following alcohols reacts instantaneously with Lucas reagent?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  72. The Henry's law constant (\(K_H\)) values of three gases (A, B, C) in water are 145, \(2\times10^{-5}\) and 35 kbar, respectively. The solubility of these gases in water follow the order:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  73. Which plot of ln k vs \(\frac{1}{T}\) is consistent with Arrhenius equation?

    four ln k vs 1/T graphs (options 1-4)

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  74. On heating, some solid substances change from solid to vapour state without passing through liquid state. The technique used for the purification of such solid substances based on the above principle is known as

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  75. Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in

    HF and nitrophenol structures (options 1-4)

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  76. 1 gram of sodium hydroxide was treated with 25 mL of 0.75 M HCl solution, the mass of sodium hydroxide left unreacted is equal to

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  77. Which reaction is NOT a redox reaction?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  78. 'Spin only' magnetic moment is same for which of the following ions?

    A. \(Ti^{3+}\) B. \(Cr^{2+}\) C. \(Mn^{2+}\) D. \(Fe^{2+}\) E. \(Sc^{3+}\)

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  79. The highest number of helium atoms is in

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  80. Match List I with List II.

    List I (Complex): A. \([Co(NH_3)_5(NO_2)]Cl_2\) B. \([Co(NH_3)_5(SO_4)]Br\) C. \([Co(NH_3)_6][Cr(CN)_6]\) D. \([Co(H_2O)_6]Cl_3\)

    List II (Type of isomerism): I. Solvate isomerism II. Linkage isomerism III. Ionization isomerism IV. Coordination isomerism

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  81. Given below are two statements:

    Statement I : The boiling point of hydrides of Group 16 elements follow the order

    \(H_2O > H_2Te > H_2Se > H_2S\).

    Statement II : On the basis of molecular mass, \(H_2O\) is expected to have lower boiling point than the other members of the group but due to the presence of extensive H-bonding in \(H_2O\), it has higher boiling point.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  82. A compound with a molecular formula of \(C_6H_{14}\) has two tertiary carbons. Its IUPAC name is:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  83. Match List I with List II.

    List I (Conversion): A. 1 mol of \(H_2O\) to \(O_2\) B. 1 mol of \(MnO_4^-\) to \(Mn^{2+}\) C. 1.5 mol of Ca from molten \(CaCl_2\) D. 1 mol of FeO to \(Fe_2O_3\)

    List II (Number of Faraday required): I. 3F II. 2F III. 1F IV. 5F

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  84. The compound that will undergo \(S_N1\) reaction with the fastest rate is

    four alkyl/aryl bromide structures (options 1-4)

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  85. Arrange the following elements in increasing order of electronegativity:

    N, O, F, C, Si

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  86. Major products A and B formed in the following reaction sequence, are

    [scheme: 2-methylcyclohexanol (OH and \(H_3C\) on adjacent ring carbons) \(\xrightarrow{PBr_3}\) A (major) \(\xrightarrow[\Delta]{alc.\ KOH}\) B (major), see figure]

    reaction scheme with PBr3 then alc. KOH and the four A/B product-pair options

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  87. Identify the correct answer.

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  88. The work done during reversible isothermal expansion of one mole of hydrogen gas at 25\(^\circ\)C from pressure of 20 atmosphere to 10 atmosphere is:

    (Given R = 2.0 cal \(K^{-1}\) \(mol^{-1}\))

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  89. Consider the following reaction in a sealed vessel at equilibrium with concentrations of \(N_2 = 3.0\times10^{-3}\) M, \(O_2 = 4.2\times10^{-3}\) M and \(NO = 2.8\times10^{-3}\) M.

    \(2NO_{(g)} \rightleftharpoons N_{2(g)} + O_{2(g)}\)

    If 0.1 mol \(L^{-1}\) of \(NO_{(g)}\) is taken in a closed vessel, what will be degree of dissociation (\(\alpha\)) of \(NO_{(g)}\) at equilibrium?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  90. For the given reaction:

    [scheme: ring-C(H)=CH-ring \(\xrightarrow{KMnO_4/H^+}\) 'P' (major product), see figure]

    'P' is

    stilbene-type reaction with KMnO4/H+ and four product structures

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  91. The pair of lanthanoid ions which are diamagnetic is

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  92. The products A and B obtained in the following reactions, respectively, are

    \(3ROH + PCl_3 \rightarrow 3RCl + A\)

    \(ROH + PCl_5 \rightarrow RCl + HCl + B\)

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  93. Given below are certain cations. Using inorganic qualitative analysis, arrange them in increasing group number from 0 to VI.

    A. \(Al^{3+}\) B. \(Cu^{2+}\) C. \(Ba^{2+}\) D. \(Co^{2+}\) E. \(Mg^{2+}\)

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  94. Given below are two statements :

    Statement I : \([Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}\) is a homoleptic complex whereas \([Co(NH_3)_4Cl_2]^+\) is a heteroleptic complex.

    Statement II : Complex \([Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}\) has only one kind of ligands but \([Co(NH_3)_4Cl_2]^+\) has more than one kind of ligands.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  95. A compound X contains 32% of A, 20% of B and remaining percentage of C. Then, the empirical formula of X is :

    (Given atomic masses of A = 64; B = 40; C = 32 u)

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  96. The plot of osmotic pressure (\(\Pi\)) vs concentration (mol \(L^{-1}\)) for a solution gives a straight line with slope 25.73 L bar \(mol^{-1}\). The temperature at which the osmotic pressure measurement is done is:

    (Use R = 0.083 L bar \(mol^{-1}\) \(K^{-1}\))

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  97. Identify the major product C formed in the following reaction sequence :

    \(CH_3-CH_2-CH_2-I \xrightarrow{NaCN} A \xrightarrow[\text{Partial hydrolysis}]{OH^-} B \xrightarrow[Br_2]{NaOH} C\) (major)

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  98. During the preparation of Mohr's salt solution (Ferrous ammonium sulphate), which of the following acid is added to prevent hydrolysis of \(Fe^{2+}\) ion?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  99. The rate of a reaction quadruples when temperature changes from 27\(^\circ\)C to 57\(^\circ\)C. Calculate the energy of activation.

    Given R = 8.314 J \(K^{-1}\) \(mol^{-1}\), log 4 = 0.6021

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  100. Mass in grams of copper deposited by passing 9.6487 A current through a voltmeter containing copper sulphate solution for 100 seconds is:

    (Given : Molar mass of Cu : 63 g \(mol^{-1}\), 1F = 96487 C)

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  101. The cofactor of the enzyme carboxypeptidase is:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  102. Given below are two statements:

    Statement I : Parenchyma is living but collenchyma is dead tissue.

    Statement II : Gymnosperms lack xylem vessels but presence of xylem vessels is the characteristic of angiosperms.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  103. Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of chromosomes during

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  104. In a plant, black seed color (BB/Bb) is dominant over white seed color (bb). In order to find out the genotype of the black seed plant, with which of the following genotype will you cross it?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  105. The equation of Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth is

    \(\frac{dN}{dt} = rN\left[\frac{K-N}{K}\right]\).

    From this equation, \(K\) indicates:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  106. How many molecules of ATP and NADPH are required for every molecule of \(CO_2\) fixed in the Calvin cycle?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  107. Match List I with List II

    List I: A. Clostridium butylicum; B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae; C. Trichoderma polysporum; D. Streptococcus sp.

    List II: I. Ethanol; II. Streptokinase; III. Butyric acid; IV. Cyclosporin-A

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  108. These are regarded as major causes of biodiversity loss:

    A. Over exploitation

    B. Co-extinction

    C. Mutation

    D. Habitat loss and fragmentation

    E. Migration

    Choose the correct option:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  109. Given below are two statements:

    Statement I : Chromosomes become gradually visible under light microscope during leptotene stage.

    Statement II : The begining of diplotene stage is recognized by dissolution of synaptonemal complex.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  110. Auxin is used by gardeners to prepare weed-free lawns. But no damage is caused to grass as auxin

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  111. A pink flowered Snapdragon plant was crossed with a red flowered Snapdragon plant. What type of phenotype/s is/are expected in the progeny?

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  112. Which of the following are required for the dark reaction of photosynthesis?

    A. Light

    B. Chlorophyll

    C. \(CO_2\)

    D. ATP

    E. NADPH

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  113. The lactose present in the growth medium of bacteria is transported to the cell by the action of:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  114. Identify the type of flowers based on the position of calyx, corolla and androecium with respect to the ovary from the given figures (a) and (b)

    two flower longitudinal sections (a) and (b) showing ovary position

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  115. Match List I with List II

    List I: A. Rhizopus; B. Ustilago; C. Puccinia; D. Agaricus

    List II: I. Mushroom; II. Smut fungus; III. Bread mould; IV. Rust fungus

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  116. The type of conservation in which the threatened species are taken out from their natural habitat and placed in special setting where they can be protected and given special care is called;

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  117. Match List I with List II

    List I: A. Nucleolus; B. Centriole; C. Leucoplasts; D. Golgi apparatus

    List II: I. Site of formation of glycolipid; II. Organization like the cartwheel; III. Site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis; IV. For storing nutrients

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  118. The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell of the plant is called:

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  119. Formation of interfascicular cambium from fully developed parenchyma cells is an example for

    4 marks · See worked answer →

  120. Which one of the following can be explained on the basis of Mendel's Law of Dominance?

    A. Out of one pair of factors one is dominant and the other is recessive.

    B. Alleles do not show any expression and both the characters appear as such in \(F_2\) generation.

    C. Factors occur in pairs in normal diploid plants.

    D. The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called factor.

    E. The expression of only one of the parental characters is found in a monohybrid cross.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    4 marks · See worked answer →